The professor of an introduction to general relativity made a remark that confused me. It is not merely that I find it unintuitive, I also find it hard to wrap my head around what it means:
In dimensions $1$ to $3$, a topological manifold can be given only one differential structure (and finitely many in $5-7$) [I think what he means here is that we can give it an infinite amount of differentially-compatible atlasses, but they are all diffeomorphic], but in dimension $4$, we can give it an uncountable number of non-diffeomorphic differential structures.
First of all, I am not 100% sure if I understand what it means. For example is it correct to say that to give a topological manifold a particular differential structure is to choose a smooth Atlas $A$ or any other one that has smooth transition maps to $A$'s charts?
To test my understanding, please tell me if the following re-formulation is correct:
Take any ${1,2,3}$-dimensional differentiable manifold $M$. Take the set $X$ of all manifolds that are homeomorphic to $M$. Then all elements of $X$ are also diffeomorphic to eachother.
Take any $4$-dimensional differentiable manifold $M$. Take the set $Y$ of all manifolds that are homeomorphic to $M$. Then there are an uncountable number of subsets $U_{\alpha \in R}$ of $Y$ such that for all $\alpha \in R$, all elements of $U_{\alpha}$ are diffeomorphic to eachother, but for every $\alpha, \beta \in R, ($with $\alpha \neq \beta)$, no element of $U_{\alpha}$ is diffeomorphic to an element of $U_{\beta}$.
Then the questions this post is all about:
- Why is there only one particular differential structure for ${1,2,3}$ dimensional manifolds (proof-wise perhaps, but mostly intuitively)? I feel like I can't understand the $4$ dimensional weirdness, until I intuitively understand the ${1,2,3}$ case.
- What should we even imagine when we say that a $4$-dimensional manifold has multiple differential structures? We can't easily picture $4$ dimensional space, but is there some intuitive way to show what this would mean?
Additional remarks
$(1)$. Additional analysis/question: If my above re-formulation is correct, then the theorem does not imply that for any particular differentiable $4$-manifold (i.e. any particular set of points in $R^{d>=4}$ forming a $4$-sub-manifold) there are infinite possible differential structures. For example, if we take any particular differentiable $4$-manifold embedded in $R^{d>=4}$, then that manifold will only have a unique differentiable structure, correct?