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Let $f: X \longrightarrow Y$ be a continuous function between two topological spaces. Prove that $f$ is closed if and only if: for every $U\subset X$ and for every $y\in Y$ such that $f^{-1}(y)\in U$, there exists an open set $V \subset Y$ such that $y \in V$ and $f^{-1}(y)\in V$.

Perturbative
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lilian
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  • $f^{-1}(y)$ is a subset of $X$, so I guess you mean $f^{-1}(y)\subset U$. Now $V$ is a subset of $Y$, so how is $f^{-1}(y)\subset V$? – ryanblack Jan 16 '17 at 20:53
  • $f^{-1}(y) \in V$ makes no sense, $f^{-1}(y)$, more properly denoted as $f^{-1}[{y}]$, is a subset of $X$, not a member of some subset of $Y$. I gave a correct formulation in my answer. – Henno Brandsma Jan 17 '17 at 08:32

1 Answers1

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The correct formulation should be:

$f$ is closed iff for all $y \in Y$ and for every open set $U \subseteq X$ such that $f^{-1}[\{y\}] \subseteq U$, there exists some open set $V \subseteq Y$ such that $y \in V$ and $f^{-1}[V] \subseteq U$.

This is true regardless of continuity of $f$ (a map can be closed without being continuous).

Note that this is a sort of dual to continuity, using fibres (inverse images of singletons).

For normal continuity we have that for every $x \in X$ and every open neighbourhood $V$ of the forward image $f(x)$ we have some open $U$ that contains $x$ and such that $f[U] \subseteq V$.

In this criterion for closedness we take an open neighbourhood of the fibre of $y$ (so going back instead of forward) and ask for a neighbourhood of that point whose inverse image stays inside the given neighbourhood, instead of the forward image.

It's a useful criterion to think about closed maps in this way, especially if you're working with so-called perfect maps (closed, continuous, surjective and fibres are compact) and preservation of properties under those maps.

That's where I first learnt about it.

If $f$ is closed, then given any open set $U$ in $X$ with $f^{-1}\big[ \{ y \} \big] \subseteq U$, we see that $X \setminus U$ is closed in $X$, and so $f \big[X\setminus U \big]$ is closed in $Y$, and we can define $V \colon= Y \setminus f \big[ X \setminus U \big]$, which is then open.

Then $y \in V$, because if $y \not\in V$, this would mean $y \in f \big[X\setminus U \big]$, and so $y=f(p)$ for some $p \in X \setminus U$, but this $p$ cannot be in $f^{-1}\big[ \{y\} \big]$ since $p \notin U$.

Also $f^{-1}[V] \subseteq U$: if $p \in f^{-1}[V]$, then $f(p) \in V$, so $f(p) \notin f \big[X \setminus U \big]$, so $p$ cannot be in $X \setminus U$, so must be in $U$, as required.

If $f$ obeys the condition as stated, $f$ is closed:

Suppose $C$ is closed in $X$ and let $y \notin f[C]$. The latter means that $f^{-1} \big[ \{ y \}\big] \subseteq U$, where $U \colon= X\setminus C$, and so we have an open set $V$ of $Y$ such that $y \in V$ and $$ f^{-1}[V] \subseteq U = X \setminus C,$$ which says that $V$ misses $f[C]$ entirely. So $y$ is an interior point of $Y \setminus f[C]$, making the latter set open and thus $f[C]$ closed.

Henno Brandsma
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  • does our map $f \colon X \rightarrow Y$ necessarily have to be surjective for this iff condition to hold? If so, can you please modify your post so as to state (and prove) the result in its full generality? – Saaqib Mahmood May 23 '20 at 10:45
  • @SaaqibMahmood No, surjectivity is never used. It also was not part of the OP's question. – Henno Brandsma May 23 '20 at 10:49