Related problems:
1. A slick proof that a field which is finitely generated as a ring is finite
2. An ideal which is not finitely generated
Sorry for this dumb problem; since I am not a student in mathematics.
My idea is:
since $1\in \mathbf{R}$, so for any $a\in \mathbf{R}$, $a = 1\cdot a$.
So any real number in $\mathbf{R}$ can be finitely generated.
I have no idea if this is true. Can anyone guide me about this by simpler but detailed explanation?
Just for modification:
This problem comes from the following:
What does the $\mathbf{R}$ be finitely generated as is also a part I am confused before; therefore, I hope to understand this throught this question.