I would like some help with the following problem. Thanks for any help in advance.
Demonstrate by way of a suitable example that if $(X_n)_{j=1}^\infty$ is a sequence of nonnegative random variables such that
$P({X_n} = 0i.o.(n)) =1$ and $\lim_{n\to\infty} EX_n = 0$
then it is not necessarily true that $\lim_{n\to\infty} X_n = 0 a.c.$
I don't see how the above cannot be true. Wouldn't Borel-Cantelli imply that $\lim_{n\to\infty} X_n = 0 a.c.$ ?