I can't find an easy way to show this by hand (although it is still possible). However, I am presenting an answer assuming the prime factorization of $z$ is known (or that the use of a calculator is tolerated... for this time) which makes things slightly more tractable. (I'm very new to number theory so perhaps there is a more straightforward way to go about it though...)
Let $p=1000000007, z=123456789$
$z^{p-1}\equiv1\pmod p$ by Fermat's little theorem
So either $z^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv1\pmod p$ or $z^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv-1\pmod p$
$1$ and $-1$ are obviously solutions to the equation $x^2\equiv 1\pmod p$ and there cannot be a third possibility because we are solving a second order equation on a commutative field of integers mod $p$, which means there are at most $2$ roots.
It can be shown that $z^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv1\pmod p$, either by direct computation (very tedious by hand), or by showing it is a quadratic residue using reciprocity laws, assuming the knowledge of the prime factorization of $z$ (still not straightforward). I am going to show the latter, which nonetheless assumes the prime factorization is known (or has been checked... unfortunately, the prime numbers involved are huge for the average human, and I can't think of an easy way without a calculator or knowing the result beforehand).
$123456789=3^2\times3607\times3803$
Using quadratic reciprocity laws:
$z^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv(123456789,1000000007)$
$=(9,1000000007)\times(3607,1000000007)\times(3803,1000000007)$
$=(-1)\times(1000000007,3607)\times(-1)\times(1000000007,3803)$
$=(2541,3607)\times(1157,3803)$
$=(3\times7\times11^2,3607)\times(13\times89,3803)$
$=(3,3607)\times(7,3607)\times(13,3803)\times(89,3803)$
$=(-1)\times(3607,3)\times(-1)\times(3607,7)\times(3803,13)\times(3803,89)$
$=(1,3)\times(2,7)\times(7,13)\times(65,89)$
$=1\times1\times(13,7)\times(5\times13,89)$
$=(6,7)\times(5,89)\times(13,89)$
$=(2\times3,7)\times(89,5)\times(89,13)$
$=1\times(3,7)\times(4,5)\times(11,13)$
$=(-1)\times(7,3)\times(13,11)$
$=(-1)\times(1,3)\times(2,11)$
$=(-1)\times1\times(-1)$
$=1$
(I hope I didn't make mistakes which cancel out)
So, $z^{\frac{p-1}{2}}\equiv1\pmod p$ and $z^{\frac{p+1}{2}}\equiv z\pmod p$
Besides,
$\frac{p+1}{2}\equiv\frac{2+1}{2}\equiv0 \pmod 3$
Therefore,
$x=z^{\frac{(p+1)}{6}}+pk$ are solutions, with $k$ integral.
They are the only solutions because $\gcd(3,p-1)=1$ and thus the map $x\rightarrow x^3$ is injective mod $p$