We want to show that:
$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_n) = \prod_{i=0}^{n-2} (a_1, a_{n-i})$
Where $\prod_{i=1}^{n} a_i = a_1 \cdot a_2 \cdot ...\cdot a_n$
Use an induction step here.
if the above then:
$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1}) = \prod_{i=0}^{n-1} (a_1, a_{n+1-i})$
that is equivalent to
$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1}) = (a_1, a_{n+1}) \cdot \prod_{i=0}^{n-2} (a_1, a_{n-i})$
Permutation
$(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n+1})$ differs from $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n})$ only in a way such that $a_n \rightarrow a_{n+1}$ and $a_{n+1} \rightarrow a_1$
Plugging in $a_n$ into permutation $(a_1, a_2, ..., a_{n})$ returns $a_{n+1}$. Then in the "highest layer" it is transformed into $a_1$ by $(a_1, a_{n+1})$.
On the other hand plugging in $a_{n+1}$ will leave us with 1 as there's no occurrence of $a_{n+1}$ anywhere, but in the leftmost element of a product.
Thus induction step is indeed proven.
Base step is trivial. Just check.
$ (a_1, a_2, a_3) = (a_1, a_3) \cdot (a_1, a_2)$