1

How can we prove that any bijection from any set to itself is a composition of 2 involutions ?

So I know that any involution is a bijection, and so it has an inverse (which happens to be itself here). Also, I was thinking that maybe we could use the identity function on the set somehow because the identity function is also an involution right ?

Also the case where the bijection in the question is already an involution is trivial since we can take the composition of itself with the identity.

Thanks for your help.

user26857
  • 53,190
TedMosby
  • 523
  • 4
    Your question has already been answered here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1951314/composition-of-2-involutions. Why do you need to post a self-duplicate? – user26857 Oct 26 '16 at 22:11

0 Answers0