I have seen a few times now that, any bijection on any set( finite, or not) can be written as a composition of two involution. However, it is usually said that this is a well known result.
However, my question is why is it so obvious? What is the basic proof of this that leads to it being considered trivial?
I am still not sure what the proof would be. Maybe something to do with orbits? I think probably would have to consider the finite and infinite cases apparently. Im just not sure.
I know this question has been asked before but I do not understand the answer given in the linked question. It still is not clear to me how to do such a thing.
