The problem is as below:
Solve all solutions to $x^2+\dfrac{p}{q}(xy)+y^2=z^2$ for $x$, $y$, $z\in\mathbb{Q}$ and $p$, $q\in\mathbb{N}$ with $\gcd{(p,q)}=1$.
My attempt: Noticing that for a Diophantine Equation $x^2+axy+y^2$, it's solution is given by:
\begin{equation*} \begin{split} x&=k(an^2-2mn) \\ y&=k(m^2-n^2) \\ z&=k(amn-m^2-n^2). \\ \end{split} \end{equation*}
By multiplying the whole equation with $q^2$ gives $(qx)^2+pqxy+(qy)^2=(qz)^2$. And I'm stuck from here.
Can someone please help? This seems like an interesting problem.