This should be a basic, or even stupid, question, but I am really confused, and I cannot find any webpage that addresses my question.
From wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Resolvent_formalism), an operator $A$ has compact resolvent iff $(A - zI)^{-1}$ is compact for some $z$.
My confusion is that, compact operators cannot be invertible if the domain is infinite dimensional, but clearly $(A - zI)^{-1}$ is invertible by definition. Then this definition would not make sense!
The resolvent of $A$ consists, by definition, of all the $z$ for which the operator $(A-zI)$ is invertible.
– avs Aug 17 '16 at 20:39