This is something that bothered me in my lectures on analytics geometry (because it was given without proof). I can see that $\langle (x,0),(0,y) \rangle=0$ easily, but what about when these two vectors are rotated? I believe I've been able to prove it for $2$-dimensions:
$$\langle A,B \rangle=\langle (|A|\cos\theta ,|A| \sin \theta ),(|B|\cos\psi ,|B| \sin \psi)\rangle\\ = |A||B|cos \theta \cos \psi+|A||B|\cos \theta \cos \psi\\=|A||B|(\cos\theta \cos\psi+ \sin \theta \sin \psi)\\=|A||B|\cos (\theta - \psi)$$
Now $\cos( \theta - \psi) =0$ exactly when $ \theta - \psi=n\pi +\cfrac{\pi}{2}, n\in \Bbb{Z}$. That is basically, when the difference of the two angles is $\cfrac{\pi}{2},\cfrac{3\pi}{2}$.