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It is assumed that the sequence of functions converges and that each function is bounded, then can the limiting function be unbounded?

DpS
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  • You should be clear about what "converges" means. I assume you mean "converges point wise". – zhw. Jul 27 '16 at 18:16
  • You're right,I should've mentioned that. I guess I'm looking for uniform convergence, since the sequence of functions is supposed to be Cauchy wrto the infinite norm. – DpS Jul 27 '16 at 18:21
  • The uniform limit of bounded functions is bounded. Just choose $\epsilon =1$ in the definition. – zhw. Jul 27 '16 at 18:23
  • If the upper bound is unbounded, you have it. Take $f_n(x)=n$. –  Dec 14 '18 at 20:19

2 Answers2

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Yes, if you only have pointwise convergence. Take $(f_n)_n$ defined by $$ f_n(x) = x^2 \mathbb{1}_{[-n,n]}(x), x\in\mathbb{R}. $$

This converges pointwise to the function $f\colon x\in\mathbb{R}\mapsto x^2$, which is not bounded. But each $f_n$ is itself bounded (namely, $\lVert f_n\rVert_\infty = n^2$).

Following a comment: however, if it exists, the uniform limit (i.e., with regard to the supremum norm $\lVert\cdot\rVert_\infty$) of a sequence of real-valued bounded functions will be bounded. (Follows e.g. from the fact that the space of bounded-real valued functions is complete for the sup norm, see this); or from a direct proof$^{(\dagger)}$).


$(\dagger)$ Taking $\varepsilon = 1$, there exists $N\geq 0$ such that $\lVert f-f_n\rVert_\infty \leq 1$ for all $n\geq N$. In particular, for this specific, fixed $N$, by the triangle inequality $\lVert f\rVert_\infty \leq \lVert f_N\rVert_\infty+1$.

Clement C.
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4

Let $f_n(x)=|x|$ for $|x|\le n$, and let $f(x)=n$ for $|x|\gt n$.

André Nicolas
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