Given a ring $R$ and a ring extension $R'$, if $r=r's$ where $r'\in R'\setminus R$ and $r,s\in R\setminus\{0\}$, does that mean that $s\not\mid r$ in $R$?
I was thinking for example in $\Bbb{Z}$, since $\frac{2}{3} \not\in \Bbb{Z}$ then $3\not\mid 2$ in $\Bbb{Z}$. Or equivalently $2=\frac23 3$, since $\frac23 \in \Bbb{Q}\setminus \Bbb{Z}$ we know $3\not\mid 2$.
So in general I conjecture if "$\frac{r}{s}$" exists only in some larger ring, then $s\not\mid r$. Is this true? Or is there some extreme example where $r=r's$ for some $r'$ in a larger ring and also $r=ts$ for $t$ in the original ring?
Note there are trivial cases where $r$ and $s$ are $0$.
I think this would be a good characterization of divisibility.