Note: I'm not asking for a solution or a hint relating to the problem itself, I'm just describing it.
Assume $f: \Bbb R^n \rightarrow \Bbb R^m$ is a continuous function. Furthermore, the equation $$f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)$$ holds for every $x, y \in \Bbb R^n$. Show that $f$ is a linear function.
So, a friend of mine proved this the following way, and although she did not use the continuity (which makes the proof wrong anyway), I wondered what's so wrong about proving linearity like this in general.
Assume $s \in \Bbb R$. Then $$f(sx) = f\bigg(\overbrace{x + x + \dotsb + x}^{s\text{ terms}}\bigg) = \overbrace{f(x) + f(x) + \dotsb + f(x)}^{s\text{ terms}} = s f(x)$$
I told her that this couldn't be true since she assumes that $|s| \ge 1$, it wouldn't work out for $- 1 < s < 1$ (or would it?). But is this the only reason? And if it is indeed: Wouldn't that mean that we could indeed prove scalar multiplication (and thus: linearity) if we already showed the additivity of a function and could assume that $|s| \ge 1$?