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If we know the elements of set $A$ are say $\{1,2,3\}$ and set $B$ is $\{4,5,6\}$, can we define a bijection between them by just having a correspondence between the elements of the set? What I mean by this is could the definition be a listing like this

Element of set $A$ $\longrightarrow$ element of set $B$

$1 \longrightarrow 4$

$2 \longrightarrow 5$

$3 \longrightarrow 6$

Björn Friedrich
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user278039
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1 Answers1

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Yes, a function is well-defined if each element of its domain is mapped to exactly one element of the range. As long as this is true, it does not matter how exactly you describe this mapping.

lattice
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