Suppose $K$ is a prime subfield of $E$, then if $\phi$ is an automorphism from $E$ to $E$, we have for all $x \in K$, $\phi(x) = x$.
I feel like this is just the definition of a field automorphism, but my book says this should be proven as an exercise.
field automorphismandK-automorphismof a field extension of $K$. – Bernard Apr 25 '16 at 22:46