According to this post, I found for $X \sim N(0,1)$, $x > 0$ the result that
\begin{align} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\big(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x^3}\big)e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}} \leq P(X>x) \leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\frac{1}{x}e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}}. \end{align}
Now, an even stronger upper bound has to hold, namely \begin{align} P(X>x) \leq e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}}. \end{align} For $x \geq 1$ this is obvious. However, it seems to be rather difficult to show that this inequality does hold for $0<x<1$. What do you think?