I was reading Terence Tao post https://terrytao.wordpress.com/2009/04/19/245c-notes-3-distributions/ and i'm not able to prove the last item of exercise 4.
I have a map $F:C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb R^d)\times C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb R^d)\to C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb R^d)$ given by $F(f,g) = fg$.
The question is: Why is $F$ continuous?
I proved that if a sequence $(f_n,g_n)$ converges to $(f,g)$ then $F(f_n,g_n) \to F(f,g)$, that is, $F$ is sequentially continuous. But, as far as i know, this does not implies that $F$ is continuous.
The topology of $C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb R^d)$ is given by seminorms $p:C_c^{\infty}(\mathbb R^d) \to \mathbb R_{\geq 0}$ such that $p\big|_{C_c^{\infty}( K)}:{C_c^{\infty}( K)} \to \mathbb R_{\geq 0}$ is continuous for every $K\subset \mathbb R^d$ compact, the topology of ${C_c^{\infty}( K)}$ is given by the seminorms $ f\mapsto \sup_{x\in K} |\partial^{\alpha} f(x)|$, $\alpha \in \mathbb N^d,$ and $C_c^{\infty}( K)$ is a Fréchet space.
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/706061/topologies-of-test-functions-and-distributions#comment1483406_706463
he posted the article http://www.ams.org/journals/proc/1971-027-03/S0002-9939-1971-0270145-X/S0002-9939-1971-0270145-X.pdf and on the second paragraph is said that it was proved that $\mathcal D = C_c^\infty(\mathbb R^d)$ is not sequential (and the paper proves \mathcal D' is not sequential).
– Hugo Mar 03 '16 at 13:25