This sounds obvious (all balls of all rational radii on rational centres should work, I think) but I can't complete the proof simply from these two properties of $\mathbb R^n$.
- $\mathbb R^n$ has a basis of open balls (all balls of all radii on all centres)
- $\mathbb R^n$ is second countable and Lindelöf
So from that $\mathbb R^n$ has a countable basis; the cover of $\mathbb R^n$ by open balls has a countable subcover; any open set in $\mathbb R^n$ is the countable union of open balls. But does it easily follow that $\mathbb R^n$ has countable basis of open balls ?
If I take all open sets in $\mathbb R^n$ and express each as a countable union of open balls then I end up with an uncountable set of open balls that cover $\mathbb R^n$, and I can then get a countable subset that covers $\mathbb R^n$, but does this still generate each open set ?
Second thoughts after a hint in a comment. Does this work for a proof ?
- $\mathbb R^n$ is second countable so there is a countable basis of open sets {$C_i$}.
- $\mathbb R^n$ has a basis of open balls (all balls of all radii on all centres) so each $C_i$ is the union of open balls, and is "covered" by this union.
- $\mathbb R^n$ is Lindelöf so the cover of $C_i$ by open balls has a countable subcover.
- The set of all open balls in all countable subcovers of {$C_i$} is countable, generates {$C_i$} which generates $\mathbb R^n$ and is therefore a basis for $\mathbb R^n$ .
Thanks for all the feedback. I found a more general answer to the question (more or less in line with my own second thoughts) here: http://www.austinmohr.com/Work_files/hw2-1.pdf referenced in a question here: Bases having countable subfamilies which are bases in second countable space