-4

If $f(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{ if }x\in\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q\\ 1/q & \text{ if } x = p/q;~p,q\in\Bbb Z,~q\ne 0,~\gcd(p, q)=1 \end{cases}$

Is $f$ Riemann integrable on $[0, 1]$?

Alma Arjuna
  • 6,521
Dminus
  • 1
  • Welcome to math stackexchange! Thi is a common problem, so we would greatly appreciate it if you told us a little about what you know how to do,and what you have tried on this problem. – Stella Biderman Dec 09 '15 at 21:32
  • Relevant keywords: Thomae function, or "popcorn function." (This should generate quite a few matches in the search word, rightmost corner of your screen) – Clement C. Dec 09 '15 at 21:32
  • you can use Lebesgue criterion for Riemann Integrability, just find points of discontinuity and show that its measure is $0$ – Kerr Dec 09 '15 at 21:34
  • So many downvotes for a newcomer... That's not a warm and fair welcome! – mathcounterexamples.net Dec 09 '15 at 21:51

1 Answers1

0

Hint: In which points is your $f$ continuous?

gerw
  • 33,373