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Consider $R^{\omega}$ in the box topology.

x & y are in the same component iff $x_i = y_i$ for infinitely many values.

I proved the --< implication, but I can't come up with the proof for the other direction. I was thinking to do it by contradiction that is suppose x & y are in the same components and $x_i \neq y_i$ for infinitely many values, but I couldn't proceed further. The problem that I am having is that in order to show this I have to show there doesn't exist any connected subspace of $R^{\omega}$ containing both x and y.

proof:

Suppose that x and y are in same component and $x_i = y_i$ for finitely many values of $i \in \mathbb{Z^{+}}$.

Let $\phi_i : R \rightarrow R$ be a homeomorphism that depend on i such that $\phi_i(x_i) = 0$ and $\phi_i(y_i) = i$ when $y_i \neq x_i$.

Consider $\Pi\ f_i = \tau\ : \ R^{\omega} \rightarrow R^{\omega}$ this is a homeomorphism in $R^{\omega}$ with the box topology (trivial to proof).

Now here is where I am having troubles;I can see intuitively that we will have connected component U and V that separate $\tau(x)$ and $\tau(y)$ but I can't prove that rigorously if someone could help in that final step that would be great.

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    The result is false as stated: the correct result is that $x$ and $y$ are in the same component iff $x_i\ne y_i$ for only finitely many values. The corrected part of my answer to this question gives a complete proof of the result. – Brian M. Scott Nov 15 '15 at 05:51
  • Thanks @BrianM.Scott I will look at your proof. –  Nov 15 '15 at 05:55
  • Hey @BrianM.Scott are you still available I proved it in another way would you mind checking my proof if I post it ? –  Nov 15 '15 at 07:25
  • I posted a proof here: http://at.yorku.ca/cgi-bin/bbqa?forum=ask_a_topologist_2001;task=show_msg;msg=0287 as well. It's in plain text, not Latex, so might be hard to read. I might Texify it for here. – Henno Brandsma Nov 15 '15 at 08:06
  • I added my proof @HennoBrandsma their is 1 step at the end that I can't completely justify –  Nov 15 '15 at 08:22
  • @HennoBrandsma can you check my proof and can you also textify your proof for here I think it would be helpful for people aswell. –  Nov 15 '15 at 08:54
  • @L33ter You're trying to prove a false result: points are in the same component iff they differ on at most finitely many coordinates. This is stronger than agreeing on infinitely many coordinates! The last part is way too sketchy (see Brian's proof, or mine: it is a hard result to prove!) – Henno Brandsma Nov 15 '15 at 09:30
  • Thanks, @Henno; it looks like I’d just gone to bed when the OP asked about the added argument. – Brian M. Scott Nov 15 '15 at 21:05

1 Answers1

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This was originally published as part of this note which covered all three Munkres topologies on $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ (based on the posting on topology atlas forums. For easier reference on this site I re-use the most complicated part on the box topology:

Let $X = \mathbb{R}^\omega$ be a countable product of copies of $\mathbb{R}$., and we give $X$ the box-topology.

Define a relation $\sim$ on $X$ as follows: $x \sim y$ iff the sequence $x_n - y_n$ is $0$ from a certain index onwards (or equivalently if the set of $\{n: x_n \ne y_n\}$ is finite). This is an equivalence relation: $x \sim x$ because then we have a $0$-sequence, symmetry is evident, as $-0 = 0$, and if $N_1$ is an index from which $x_n - y_n = 0$, and $N_2$ a similar one for $y_n - z_n$, then $\max\{N_1,N_2\}$ works for $x_n$ and $z_n$.

I'll show first that the classes $[x]$ are path-connected. So fix $x$. Then define for each finite subset $I$ of $\omega$ the set $X(I) = \{(y_n) : y_n = x_n \text{ for all $n$ in $\omega \setminus I$}\}$. This is homeomorphic to $\prod_{n \in I} \mathbb{R}$ by the obvious map (and by noting that on a finite(!) product the box topology and the normal product topology agree, and a finite (normal) product of copies of $\mathbb{R}$ is path-connected). Also for all such $I$, $x$ is in $X(I)$. And $[x] = \bigcup\{X(I) : I \subset N, \text{ $I$ finite}\}$, by definition. And this union is path-connected because we can always connect two points in different $X(I)$'s via their common point $x$.

Claim (to finish): if $p$ is a point not in $[x]$, so it differs with $x_n$ for infinitely many $n$, then there is a subset $Y$ such that $p \in Y$ and $Y$ clopen (i.e. closed and open) and $x \notin Y$.

This shows that no connected subset can contain both $x$ and $y$, so $[x]$ is a maximal connected subset and hence a (path-)component of $X$.

To this end: let $U_{k,n}$ be open subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ (in the $n$-th component space) such that

  1. $x_n \in U_{k,n}$ for all $k$ and $n$ in $\omega$,
  2. $p_n \not\in U_{k,n}$ unless $p_n = x_n$,
  3. $\operatorname{cl} U_{{k+1},n} \subset U_{k,n}$ for all $k$ and $n$ in $\omega$.

It is obvious such sets can be chosen. Define $$ Y = \{(y_n) : \text{there is a $k$ such that for infinitely many $n$ we have $y_n \not\in U_{k,n}$}\}. $$ This $Y$ does not contain $x$, as then for all $k$,$n$ we have $x \in U_{k,n}$. It does contain $p$, as $p$ differs on infinitely many places from $x$, so for every $k$ there are infinitely many $n$ such that $p_n \not\in U_{k,n}$, by (2) above.

It remains to show that $Y$ is closed and open.

$Y$ is open: let $z$ be in $Y$. Let $k$ be given as in the definition of $Y$. So there are infinitely many indices $n$ (say $n$ in $N'$) such that $z_n$ is not in $U_{k,n}$. In particular, such $z_n$ are in the complement of $U_{k+1,n}$. Then the box-topology basic open subset $\prod_{n \in \omega} O_n$ where $O_n$ is the complement $U_{k+1,n}$, if $n$ in $N'$ and $O_n$ is $\mathbb{R}$ otherwise, is contained in $Y$ and contains $z$. (It is contained in $Y$ because $k+1$ works in the definition for $Y$ for all points of this open set.)

Y is closed: let $z \not\in Y$. So for all $k$ there are only finitely many $n$ such that $z_n \not\in U_{k,n}$. Call these finite exception sets $I_k$. These sets are increasing: if $n$ is in $I_m$ then also in $I_{m+1}$. If $n$ is in neither of the $I_k$, $z_n$ must be in the intersection (over $k$) of the $U_{k,n}$. Let $f$ be some strictly increasing map from $\omega \setminus \bigcup I_k$ into $\omega$ (if this set is non-empty). Define the following open set $O = \prod_{n \in \omega} O_n$ in the box topology: if $n$ is in $I_{k+1} \setminus I_k$, for some $k \ge 0$, let $O_n$ be $U_{k,n} \setminus \operatorname{cl} U_{k+1,n}$, for $n$ in $I_0$, let $O_n$ be $\mathbb{R}$, and for $n$ in $\omega \setminus U_{k,n}$.

I claim that $O$ contains $z$ (this is quite clear), and that $O$ is disjoint from $Y$. Why is this so? Let $w$ be in $O$. Pick $k$ in $\omega$. If $w_n$ is not in $U_{k,n}$, then we want to show there can be only finitely many of these $n$. Consider the cases for $n$: $n$ can be in $I_{k+1} \setminus I_k$ only if $i+1 \le k$, so there are only finitely many $k$ that can apply. And the union of these is finite. If $n$ is in $I_0$, who cares? Only finitely many $n$ are in $I_0$. And finally, if $n$ is in $\omega \setminus \bigcup I_k$, this can only be a problem if this is set is infinite, but then $f$ grows larger than $k$ from some index $N$ onwards, and then $w_n$ is in $U_{f(n),n} \subset U_{k,n}$ (remember that the $U$'s decrease in $k$) for $n \ge N$. So in $\omega \setminus \bigcup I_k$ there can also only be finitely many $n$ with $w_n \not\in U_{k,n}$. So this shows that for every $k$, all but finitely many $n$ have $w_n \in U_{k,n}$. So $w$ is not in $Y$, and $O$ is disjoint from $Y$. So $Y$ is closed.

Henno Brandsma
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  • This is amazing.. –  Nov 17 '15 at 05:12
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    I have one question: for $Y$ closed, you claim that $O$ contains $z$. But if there is $n\in I_{k+1}- I_k$, we only have $z_n \in U_{k,n} - U_{k+1,n}$. But the definition for $O$ at such $n$ is $U_{k,n} - \overline{U_{k+1,n}}$, a smaller set.How do we know for sure that $z_n\notin \overline{U_{k+1,n}}$? – Jun Xu Apr 26 '21 at 11:59