I would appreciate if you could please express your opinion about my proof. I'm not yet very good with automorphisms, so I'm trying to make sure my proofs are OK.
Proof:
Since ${\rm Aut}(G)$ is cyclic, ${\rm Aut}(G)$ is abelian. Thus for any elements $\phi, \psi \in{\rm Aut}(G)$ and some elements $g_i \in G$, $\phi\psi(g_1g_2)=\phi\psi(g_1)\phi\psi(g_2)=g_3g_4=\phi\psi(g_2)\phi\psi(g_1)=\phi\psi(g_2g_1)=g_4g_3$. Hence, $g_3g_4=g_4g_3\implies G$ is abelian.
The proof seems to be quite straightforward, but I'd rather ask for advice.
But $\phi\psi(g_1)\phi\psi(g_2) = \phi\psi(g_2)\phi\psi(g_1)=g_4g_3$. Hence, $g_3g_4=g_4g_3\implies G$ is abelian.
Will this now make a proof?
– sequence Nov 12 '15 at 22:35