I've shown that $T^2$ can be embedded in $\mathbb R^3$. I just can't see why it can not be embedded in $\mathbb R^2$.
Ideas:
- suppose $F: \mathbb S^1\times \mathbb S^1 \to \mathbb R^2$ is continuous injective then we can construct (somehow) $G:\mathbb S^1\to \mathbb R$ continuous injective so we get a contradiction.
- we know that $\mathbb R^2$ is homeomorphic to the punctured $2$-sphere, so we get embedding $F$ from $T^2$ to $\mathbb S^2\setminus\{0\}$, thus $F$ is not onto $\mathbb S^2$ and then I can show that it is homotopic to the constant map, but I can't see any contradiction in this situation.
Thank you in advance.