The claim is that if $f \in \mathbb Z[x]$ is monic and has a factorization, say $f = pq$ with $p,q \in \mathbb Q[x]$ such that $p, q$ are also monic, then $p, q$ are in $\mathbb Z[x]$.
The text cited Gauss's lemma but I am not seeing how. Suppose that $R$ is a unique factorization domain, and $F$ its field of quotients; Gauss's lemma says that, if $f \in R[x]$ is primitive, reducibility over $F$ is equivalent to reducibility over $R$. However, the statement does not say that the factorizations are the same.
The premise that $f$ is monic suggest that the content $c(f) = 1$. Thus, I attempted a proof by contradiction. What happens if the factors are not in $\mathbb Z[x]$, but here is the problem. Since each rational number has infinitely many factors, how do I know what $c(p), c(q)$ equal to?