I am trying to understand this proof.
Theorem. If $a$ is a nonnegative real number and $n$ is a positive integer, there exists a real number $b\geq 0$ such that $b^n=a$.
Proof. Let $$X=\{x\in\mathbb{R}\mid x\geq 0 \text{ and }x^n\leq a\}.$$ First $X\neq \varnothing$ since $0\in X$. We argue by contradiction to show that $X$ is bounded above by $a+1$. Suppose that there exists $x\in X$ such that $x>a+1$. Then $$a\geq x^n>(a+1)^n=\sum\limits_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}a^k\geq na$$ which is impossiblle; so $X$ is bounded above.
By the least-upper-bound axiom, $X$ has a supremum $b\in\mathbb{R}$. We will prove that $b^n=a$. We know that exactly one of these relations holds $$b^n<a,b^n>a,b^n=a$$ We show that the first two possibilities cannot occur.
Suppose $b^n<a$, and let $\delta=a-b^n>0$. Choose positive integers $m_0,...,m_{n-1}$ such that $$\binom{n}{k}b^k \frac{1}{m_{k}^{n-k}}<\frac{\delta}{n},k=0,1,...,n-1$$ Let $m=\max\{m_0,...,m_{n-1}\}$. Then $$(b+\frac{1}{m})^n=\sum\limits_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}b^k\frac{1}{m^{n-k}}$$ $$=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n-1} \binom{n}{k}b^k\frac{1}{m^{n-k}}+b^n$$ $$<\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{\delta}{n}+b^n$$ $$=\delta+b^n=a.$$ Therefore $b+\frac{1}{m}\in X$ but $b\leq b+\frac{1}{m}$ which is impossible; thus $a\leq b^n$. Similarly one shows that $a<b^n$ is false, and therefore $a=b^n$.
My problem understanding it is in the choice of the $m_k$. Why can we make that choice? I think when the author says
Suppose $b^n<a$, and let $\delta=a-b^n>0$. Choose positive integers $m_0,...,m_{n-1}$ such that $$\binom{n}{k}b^k \frac{1}{m^{n-k}}<\frac{\delta}{n},k=0,1,...,n-1$$
he is using the fact that the order is archimedean, but I don´t see the form... If we have $w,r\in\mathbb{R}^+$ there exists $q\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $w<qr$. But I don't see which is the $w,q,r$...