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Let $R$ be the subring of $k[x, y]$ generated by $\{x y^{i}: i\geq 0\}$. Can someone explain why $R$ is not finitely generated as a ring over $k$ (i.e. finitely generated as a $k$-algebra)?

By definition, $R$ is the smallest subring over $k$ containing the set $\{x y^{i}: i\geq 0\}$. So it contains all expressions $x y^{i}$, but it also contains all polynomials in $x y^{i}$ with coefficients in $k$, such as $x y^4 + 7 x y^8$. Now, let's assume, to the contrary, that $R$ is generated by $n$ elements $f_1, f_2, …, f_n$. Then each $f_j$ is a polynomial in $xy^{i}$ (as $i$ ranges over finitely many choices). But where do we get a contradiction from here?

Source. This example is taken from Mariano's answer here.

Prism
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  • First, what do you mean by "finitely generated as a ring"? Finitely generated as an algebra or as a $k-$module ? For example, $A[x]$ is finitely generated as a $A$ algebra but not as a $A-$ module. And I can be mistaken but here, your $R$ looks like the subring generated by $x$, because $R$ contains $x$ and ${ xy^i } \subset (x)$. And then $R$ is clearly finitely generated (as an algebra). –  Jun 29 '15 at 06:59
  • @N.H. Thanks. I clarified the post. I meant finitely-generated as a $k$-algebra. In other words, the question is, why can't we find finitely many $f_1, f_2, …, f_n\in R$ such that $R = k[f_1, f_2, …, f_n]$? And $R$ is not generated by $x$, because the $k$-algebra generated by $x$ is simply $k[x]$, not $R$. – Prism Jun 29 '15 at 07:02
  • Thanks, and sorry, I was thinking of $k[x,y]$ as a ring over itself because I didn't see any informations (or read to quickly!) –  Jun 29 '15 at 07:10
  • @N.H. Not at all! Thanks for the heads-up, because the post was unclear :) – Prism Jun 29 '15 at 07:13
  • @user26857: It's not 100% a duplicate, but of course if it is not noetherian, it cannot be f.g. Therefore I agree to close. – Martin Brandenburg Jun 29 '15 at 14:47

2 Answers2

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The subring $R$ is a finitely generated $k[x,y]$-module since, as an ideal it is $(x)$.

However, as a $k$-algebra it cannot be finitely generated. Take $(f_1,...,f_r)$ to be a finite set in $R$ and set $S$ the algebra generated by $(f_1,...,f_r)$. Set $d_i$ the degree of $f_i$ in $x$. Now we are interested in the degree $1$ in $x$ part of elements of $S$. Since we have $\deg_x(f_if_j)>1$ any degree $1$ in $x$ part of elements of $S$ will come from :

$$\sum_{i=1}^r\lambda_if_i $$

Where $\lambda_i\in k$. Now project $S$ in $R/(x^2)$, we see (from the remark above) that the projection of $S$ on $R/(x^2)$ will be (as a $k$-vectorial space) of dimension $\leq r$. However it is clear that $R/(x^2)$ is (as a $k$-vectorial space) isomorphic to $k[y]$ hence infinite dimensional. So the projection of $S$ doesn't fill the whole space $R/(x^2)$, in particular $S\neq R$.

Edit : Based on Mariano's comment. When one talks about ring some (like me) might not ask for the ring to contain a unity and others (like Mariano) ask for a unity on the ring (most common convention). In the answer above, it is not supposed to contain one. If we want $R$ to contain the unity then, as $k$ vectorial space we have $R:=k\oplus (x)$. Since any element in $k\subseteq R$ is of degree $0$ the rest of the proof remains unchanged. The idea is still the following the degree $1$ part in $x$ $R/(x^2)$ is still isomorphic to $k[y]$ whereas the degree $1$ part of $S/(x^2)$ will be given by a $k$-linear combination of the degree $1$ of the generators of $f$. This gives a finite dimensional space which cannot coincide with the degree $1$ part of $R/(x^2)$.

  • Thanks, this is excellent! – Prism Jun 29 '15 at 07:15
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    The first sentence is incorrect. R is not the ideal (x) as the latter does not contain 1! – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jun 29 '15 at 07:31
  • One way to say this is: the quotient of R by its ideal generated by all products of two generators is clearly not finitely generated (it also works to consider the quotient by the ideal generated by the square of xy) – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jun 29 '15 at 07:35
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez, $R$ is the $k$-algebra generated by $xy^i$ for $i\geq 0$ why should $1$ be in it ? Let me add that in general I do not ask for rings to be unitary... – Clément Guérin Jun 29 '15 at 07:51
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    Well, you are talking about my example and my rings always contain one! You are answering a question different than the one posed by the OP if yours does not. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jun 29 '15 at 07:57
  • You are of course free to choose your rings not to have one, but as surely you are aware, that goes against the most common practice nowadays in general contexts. Unless you somehow enjoy the confusion caused, I suggest you be explicit about your convention. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jun 29 '15 at 08:00
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez, I did not realize that, I will then edit in consequence, one way to recover the good subring $R$ is then to say that the most general element of $R$ will be written as $P=P(0)+xQ(x,y)$ where $Q(x,y)\in k[x,y]$? – Clément Guérin Jun 29 '15 at 08:04
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Clément has already provided a nice answer. Here is an alternative solution, based on Mariano's comment here. Comments and criticism are welcome!

Let $I$ be the principal ideal in $R$ generated by the element $(xy)^2$. It suffices to show that $R/I$ is not a finitely generated $k$-algebra. It is not hard to see that a general element of $R/I$ is of the following form: $$ f(x)+xy g(x) + xy^2 h(y) \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{ (mod } I) $$ where $f, g\in k[x]$ and $h\in k[y]$. It is straightforward to compute a product of two arbitrary elements $p_1, p_2$ in $R/I$, namely: $$ p_1 \cdot p_2 = \left(f_1(x)+xy g_1(x) + xy^2 h_1(y)\right)\left(f_2(x)+xy g_2(x) + xy^2 h_2(y)\right) = $$ $$ =f_1(x)f_2(x)+xy\left(f_1(x)g_{2}(x)+f_2(x)g_1(x)\right)+xy^2\left(f_2(0)h_1(y)+f_1(0)h_2(y)\right) \ \ \ \ \text{ (mod } I) $$ Note that a term of the form $xy^{n}$ (for $n\geq 2$) can only come from $xy^2(f_2(0)h_1(y)+f_1(0)h_2(y))$, and so $\deg_{y} p_1 p_2 \leq \max(\deg_{y} p_1, \deg_{y} p_2)$.

Let $p_1, p_2, p_3, …, p_n$ be any $n$ elements of $R/I$. Write: $$ p_k = f_k(x)+xy g_k(x) + xy^2 h_k(y) \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{ (mod } I) $$ as above. Set $N = 3 + \max_{k} \deg_{y} h_k(y)$. Then by the remark above, we see that the algebra generated by $p_1, p_2, …, p_n$ cannot contain the element $x y^{N} \text{ (mod } I)$. Hence, $R/I$ is not finitely-generated algebra over $k$, as desired.

Prism
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