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In combinatorics, there is a formula "$n$ multichoose $k$", which is the way of making a multiset having $k$ elements choosing out of $n$ options. "$n$ multichoose $k$" is the same as "$(n+k-1)$ choose $k$". Why is that?

N. F. Taussig
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1 Answers1

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Let's say you have $N$ items (all alike for now) and $K-1$ vertical bars (all alike for now).

How many unique ways can you line up the $N$ items and the $K-1$ vertical bars?

Now pretend that everything to the left of the first bar is Type $1$, everything between the first and second bar is Type $2$ ... and everything to the right of the last $(K-1)$th bar is Type $N$.

Do you see the connection?

John
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  • I have seen this argument before, but it still isn't clear to me. I am learning from Ardila [link]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vKskmKq3v40&list=PL-XzhVrXIVeSi7xym1XAfFIxOAaHVhjtP&index=3[/link] and he gives a proof from 5:30 from 7:30. Claiming a bijection between multichoose and weak compositions. Nevertheless, this bijection is not very clear to me –  Jun 26 '15 at 22:03