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Assume that $n(t)$ is a White Gaussian Noise (WGN) process with $E[n(t)]=0$, $E[n(t)^2]=\sigma^2$ and $f(t)$ a deterministic function defined in $[0,T]$. How can I compute from first principles the variance of $g(T)$ defined as

$$g(T)=\int_0^Tf(t)n(t)dt.$$

Any references to elementary textbooks on stochastic processes are also welcome.

  • is the e(t) in the definition of g(T) the n(t) you introduced before? – tibL Apr 19 '12 at 17:20
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    You need the autocorrelation function of the process, not just the variance. – Dilip Sarwate Apr 19 '12 at 17:25
  • Yes, the noise is white and e(t)=n(t). The text is now correct. – Arrigo Benedetti Apr 19 '12 at 21:57
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    If the autocorrelation function is $$E[n(t)n(s)] = R_n(t-s)=\begin{cases}\sigma^2,&t=s,\0,&t\neq s,\end{cases}$$ then the integral expression in Nate Eldredge's answer gives $\operatorname{var}(g(T))=0$. If the autocorrelation function is $\sigma^2\delta(t-s)$ (note the difference) then see my comment on that answer as well as this question. – Dilip Sarwate Apr 20 '12 at 11:06

1 Answers1

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White noise can only be defined in the sense of distributions or as a measure. A good definition can be found in Adler and Taylor (2007, Sec. 1.4.3), see also this SE answer. If it would make sense the relation of this measure definition and your $n$ would be

$$ n(t) = \lim_{\epsilon\to 0}\frac{W([t,t+\epsilon))}{\epsilon} $$

To calculate second moments you want to use stochastic integration Adler and Taylor (2007, sec. 5.2) for deterministic functions $f,g$ $$ \mathbb{E}[W(f)W(g)] \overset{\text{def.}}=\mathbb{E}\Bigl[\Bigl(\int f(x)W(dx)\Bigr)\Bigl(\int g(x)W(dx)\Bigr) \Bigr] =\int f(x)g(x) dx, \tag{1} $$ which can be viewed as a special case of the Itô Isometry.

Taking scalar products

In your case you are interested in $$ g(T)=W(f\mathbf{1}_{[0,T)})=\int_0^T f(t) W(dt) = \langle f\mathbf{1}_{[0,T)}, W\rangle $$ for which you get the variance $$ E[g(T)^2] = \int_0^T f(t)^2 dt $$

Stochastic Integration

The trick to prove (1), is to show that the mapping $$ W:\begin{cases} L^2(\mathbb{R}^n, \mathcal{B}, \nu) &\to L^2(\Omega, \mathcal{A}, \mathbb{P})\\ f &\mapsto W(f) := \int f(t) W(dt) \end{cases} $$ preserves the scalar product. We first consider simple functions $f=\sum_{i=1}^n a_i \mathbf{1}_{A_i}$ for disjoint $A_i$, then $$ W(f)=\int f(t) W(dt) \overset{\text{def.}}= \sum_{i=1}^n a_i W(A_i) $$

Comment: in particular the expectation is zero and variance given by $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i \nu(A_i)$ considering the definition of $W$.

To calculate the scalar product between $f$ and $g=\sum_{i=1}^n b_i \mathbf{1}_{B_i}$ we assume without loss of generality $A_i=B_i$ (consider all of their interesections). Then $$\begin{aligned} \langle W(f), W(g) \rangle_{L^2(\mathbb{P})} &= \mathbb{E}\Bigl[\sum_{i=1}^n a_i W(A_i) \sum_{j=1}^n a_j W(A_j)\Bigr]\\ &= \sum_{i=1}^n a_i b_i \mathbb{E}[W(A_i)^2]\\ &= \int f(t) g(t) \nu(dt)\\ &= \langle f, g\rangle_{L^2(\nu)} \end{aligned}$$ Since the simple function are dense in $L^2$ and the scalar product is continuous we can deduce that $W$ is an isometry (where $W(f)$ for general $f$ is defined as the limit of $W(f_n)$ for simple functions $f_n$ approximating $f$). (1) then directly follows from the respective definitions of the scalar product (i.e. the second and penultimate term).

  • To give a rigorous meaning to OP's integral $$g(T)=\int_0^Tf(t),n(t),dt$$ nobody needs that overkill with a Schwartz distribution valued white noise $n,.$ Define in the Ito sense $$g(T)=\int_0^Tf(t),dW_t$$ using a benign Brownian motion. You should probably also have mentioned that OP's formula $\mathbb E[n^2(t)]=\sigma^2$ ($\in\mathbb R$ I suppose) is nonsense. – Kurt G. Jun 16 '23 at 10:46
  • @KurtG. I honestly find the measure definition of white noise of Adler very beautiful, the integral definition is then also much easier (skipping right to lebesgue integrals) which does not require you to consider increments as in the Brownian Itô case and gives you higher dimensions for free – Felix Benning Jun 16 '23 at 14:10
  • That is legit. An OP asking for "elementary textbooks on stochastic processes" should however in my opinion be given a choice between orthodox Ito calculus or the less mainstream white noise theory. – Kurt G. Jun 16 '23 at 15:48
  • @KurtG. that is fair - only that I am not familiar enough with that mainstream theory to provide good references. I mainly got here because I tried to figure out how the OP of this question: https://mathoverflow.net/q/446397/122659 / https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4694934/445105 figured out the autocovariance in their case. This is also why I added the convolutions bonus. I encourage you to provide another answer to this question. – Felix Benning Jun 17 '23 at 08:34