I was reading the answer to this question:
on the boundary of analytic functions
This answer makes sense to me up until the last line. What does having isolated zeros have to do with $f$ being identically $0$?
I was reading the answer to this question:
on the boundary of analytic functions
This answer makes sense to me up until the last line. What does having isolated zeros have to do with $f$ being identically $0$?
Since $g(z)$ is identically zero, at each $w$ at least one of the $f(e^{\frac{2\pi ij}{n}}w)$-s must also be zero. Suppose $g(w) = h(w)\ell(w)$, where $h(w)$ is the product of the $f_j(w) = f(e^{\frac{2\pi ij}{n}}w)$ that are zero at $w$, and $\ell(w)$ the product of the $f_j$ that are nonzero at $w$. Then by continuity, $\ell(w) \neq 0$ in a neighborhood of $w$, so $h(w)$ must be identically zero in this neighborhood. But then $h(w)$ is analytic with nonisolated zeroes, so it must be identically zero.
Now assuming $h$ is a product of strictly fewer factors $f_j$ than $g$, you can repeat this argument on $h$, and inductively continue until you conclude that one of the factors $f(e^{\frac{2\pi ij}{n}}z)$ is analytic with nonisolated zeroes, which is to say $f(z)$ has nonisolated zeroes.
If $h$ is a product of the same number of $f_j$ as $g$, then move to a different $w$ to get strictly fewer factors; if there is no such $w$, then every $f_j$ is identically zero.