I know this is an old quetion, but I've certainly been disappointed with the given answers. The question is: There exists a characterization of the natural numbers $n$ such that there exist at least one non-abelian group of order $n$? In this web http://oeis.org/A060652, those numbers are called "non-abelian orders" and they state this:
Let the prime factorization of $n$ be $p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_r^{e_r}$. Then $n$ is in this sequence (of non-abelian orders) if $e_i>2$ for some $i$ or $p_i^k\equiv1$(mod $p_j$) for some $i$ and $j$ and $1\leq k\leq e_i$.
I've been trying to figure out a proof and this is what I've got:
Let $n=p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_r^{e_r}$, then there exist an non-abelian group of order $n$ if $e_i>2$ for some $i$ or $p_i\equiv 1$(mod $p_j$) for some $i\neq j$.
It is clear that if both of these conditions fail to hold, then the only remainig option is $p_i^2\equiv 1$(mod $p_j$) for some $i\neq j$. Then the problem "reduces" to this:
- If $p_i^2\equiv 1$(mod $p_j$) for some $i\neq j$, then there exist at least one non-abelian group of order n?
- If 1 is true, does the converse of the theorem also holds? i.e. If there exists a non-abelian group of order $n=p_1^{e_1}\cdots p_r^{e_r}$, then $e_i>2$ for some $i$ or $p_i^k\equiv1$(mod $p_j$) for some $i$ and $j$ and $1\leq k\leq e_i$.
Thanks in advance.