Prove that the equation $a^2+b^2=c^2+3$ has infinitely many integer solutions $(a,b,c)$.
My attempt:
$(a+1)(a-1)+(b+1)(b-1)=c^2+1$
This form didn't help so I thought of $\mod 3$, but that didn't help either. Please help. Thank you.
Prove that the equation $a^2+b^2=c^2+3$ has infinitely many integer solutions $(a,b,c)$.
My attempt:
$(a+1)(a-1)+(b+1)(b-1)=c^2+1$
This form didn't help so I thought of $\mod 3$, but that didn't help either. Please help. Thank you.
If $(a,b,c)$ is a solution to $a^2 + b^2 - c^2 = K,$ where your case is $K=3,$ then you get another solution with $$ (a+2b+2c, 2a+b+2c, 2a+2b+3c). $$ Starting with $a,b,c>0,$ you can apply this again and again, the entries grow, forever.
a b c
2 0 1
4 6 7
30 28 41
168 170 239
986 984 1393
5740 5742 8119
33462 33460 47321
195024 195026 275807
1136690 1136688 1607521
6625108 6625110 9369319
38613966 38613964 54608393
jagy@phobeusjunior
See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tree_of_primitive_Pythagorean_triples
The matrix calculation that shows that the value of my letter $K$ does not matter is $$ \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 1 & 2 & 2 \\ 2 & 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 & 3 \end{array} \right) \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 \end{array} \right) \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 1 & 2 & 2 \\ 2 & 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 & 3 \end{array} \right) = \left( \begin{array}{rrr} 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -1 \end{array} \right) $$ In the matrices with the 2's and 3's, usually the one on the left is the transpose of the one on the right in the multiplication shown, but this time they are symmetric so the transpose is the same. Anyway, for any $K,$ you just need to find one solution $(a,b,c)$ with $a,b,c \geq 0$ and, for preference, $\gcd(a,b,c) = 1,$ and then this process gives infinitely many positive solutions for the same $K,$ and they stay primitive as well (gcd 1).
This can be written as a single equation which is fairly readable in this case, $$ \color{blue}{ (a+2b+2c)^2 + (2a+b+2c)^2 - ( 2a+2b+3c)^2 \; = \; a^2 + b^2 - c^2}. $$
In order that an integer $n$ can be represented as $c^2-b^2$, it suffices that $n\not\equiv{2}\pmod{4}$. In such a case $n$ can be written as the product of two divisors with the same parity, $n=pq$, and we can take $c=\frac{p+q}{2},d=\frac{p-q}{2}$. So it is sufficient to prove that for an infinite number of integers $a$, $a^2-3\not\equiv 2\pmod{4}$. This happens every time $a$ is even.
For instance, take $a=10$. We can write $n=a^2-3=97$ as $1\cdot 97$, hence $$ (a,b,c) = (10,48,49) $$ is a solution of $a^2-3=c^2-b^2$.
Put $a=6k^2-2$, $b=6k$ and $c=6k^2+1$. Then
$$\left(6k^2-2\right)^2+(6k)^2=\left(6k^2+1\right)^2+3.$$
Behind these solutions is the observation that $$\left(\frac{x+y}{2}\right)^2-\left(\frac{x-y}{2}\right)^2=xy$$ We can re-write the given equation as $c^2-a^2=b^2-3$ and choose $b$ such that $b^2-3$ is the product of two odd numbers $xy$. This allows us to choose $a=\frac{x-y}{2}$ and $c=\frac{x+y}{2}$.
Although the formula I posted. Integral solutions of $x^2+y^2+1=z^2$
Thought and decided to write as simple as possible. In equation:
$$a^2+b^2=c^2+q$$
$q$ - is specified by the problem statement. Then choose one solution $a$ so that it was possible to factor this way.
$$a^2-q=t(t+2s)$$
So the solution of this equation is always there. And can be written as:
$$b=s$$
$$c=s+t$$
Note that the requirement is simply to demonstrate infinitely many solutions - we are not required to find all solutions.
Setting $c=b+1$, we see that $a^2 = c^2-b^2+3 = 2b+4$
Therefore for any even $a>2$, we can choose $b=\frac{a^2-4}{2}$ and $c=b+1$. This gives infinitely many solutions as required.