You have not specified how you choose the three nonequal entries. Suppose the initial vector is $$v = (0,1,2,3,4,100,101,102,103,104).$$
You alternately pick three entries all from the first half of the vector and then all from the second half. Then $$\mu_n\to(2,2,2,2,2,102,102,102,102,102).$$
I believe (without proof so far) that $\mu_n\to\mu$ if and only if the operations are chosen to "mix" all of the entries, that is, for any subset $S$ of the entries of the vector, there are infinitely many operations that average at least one entry in $S$ with at least one entry not in $S$.
A simple strategy that can be proved to work is to first average $a_1$, $a_2$, and $a_3$, then average $a_2$, $a_3$, and $a_4$, then $a_3$, $a_4$, and $a_5$, and so on.
The exact rate of convergence will be determined by the second-largest singular value of the matrix
$$M =
\begin{bmatrix}
\tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & & \\
\tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & & \\
\tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & & \\
& & & 1 & & \\
& & & & 1 & \\
& & & & & \ddots
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & & & & & \\
& \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & \\
& \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & \\
& \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & & \\
& & & & 1 & \\
& & & & & \ddots
\end{bmatrix}
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & & & & & \\
& 1 & & & & \\
& & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \\
& & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \\
& & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \tfrac13 & \\
& & & & & \ddots
\end{bmatrix}
\cdots$$
but I don't know how to compute that. Instead, here is a very crude proof of convergence. I will consider the slightly simpler case of averaging only two entries at a time.
Define the mean $m=\sum_i a_i/n$ and the variance $s^2=\sum_i(a_i-m)^2/n$. One can verify that each averaging operation preserves $m$ and does not increase $s^2$. Then, we only need to show that $s^2\to0$.
The range of the data is at least $2s$. Therefore, there is at least one pair of consecutive entries $a_j$, $a_{j+1}$ with $|a_j-a_{j+1}|\ge 2s/(n-1)$. Replacing them by two copies of $(a_j+a_{j+1})/2$ decreases the variance from $s^2$ to $s^2 - |a_j-a_{j+1}|^2/(2n) \le s^2 - 2s^2/\big(n(n-1)^2\big) = \Big(1 - 2/\big(n(n-1)^2\big)\Big)s^2$. Denote this factor by $c = 1 - 2/\big(n(n-1)^2\big)$. Each pass over the vector decreases the variance to at most $c$ times its previous value. After $k$ passes, it is at most $c^ks^2$. Now $c<1$ so $c^k\to0$ as $k\to\infty$, and we are done.