In quantum calculus is this equality possible for improper integrals?
$\lim_{x\to\infty}\int_0^xf(t)d_qt=\int_0^\infty f(x)d_qx$
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2That's the definition of $\int_0^\infty$ in most contexts. – AlexR Dec 06 '14 at 22:02
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i confuse to take limit because quantum calculus is called calculus without limits – Raio Dec 06 '14 at 22:10