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This is a question about an answer to this question:

Is $\mathbb{Z}[x] / \langle (x^2 + 1)^2 \rangle$ isomorphic to a familiar ring?

Here the answer says that the ring $\mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^{2}+1)^{2}$ contains a square root of unity

$i:=\frac{1}{2}x(x^{2}+3)$

I'm not sure what that means. Also why was Newton's method mentioned?

user135520
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2 Answers2

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$(\frac{1}{2}x(x^2+3))^2=\frac{1}{4}(x^2(x^4+6x^2+9)=\frac{1}{4}(-1(1-6+9))=-1$

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$$x^2+3\equiv2\pmod{x^2+1},$$ so $$(x(x^2+3)/2)^2\equiv x^2\equiv-1\pmod{x^2+1},$$
and we can think of $x(x^2+3)/2$ as a square root of $-1.$
P.S. the element $x$ suffices for our purpose.
Hope this helps.
Edit:
I found that you wrote the question wrongly: the ring in question should be $\mathbb Q(x)/((x^2+1)^2).$
Then we shall see that $$(x^2+3)^2=x^4+6x^2+9\equiv 4x^2+8\pmod{(x^2+1)^2},$$
thus $$\frac{x^2(x^2+3)^2}{4}\equiv\frac{x^2(4x^2+8)}{4}=x^4+2x^2\equiv-1\pmod{(x^2+1)^2},$$ and this is why the element $x$ does not suffice in that linked answer.
Hope this clarifies some unclear points.

awllower
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