Let $S_{1}$ and $S_{2}$ be two schedules over the same set of transactions. If both schedules have the same precedence graph, does it follow that $S_{1}$ and $S_{2}$ are conflict equivalent.
I think the claim makes sense as -
- If two schedules are conflict equivalent, then they must have the same precedence graph.
- The precedence graph shows all conflicting operations between transactions. If both schedules have the same set of edges in their respective precedence graphs, then the order of all conflicting operations must also be the same, thus both the schedules must be conflict equivalent.
Is the claim correct? If so, is there a way to formally prove it?
