I have read the definition of treewidth/tree-decomposition both in Wikipedia and in here: https://medium.com/@karlrombauts/treewidth-how-all-graphs-are-trees-in-disguise-ec699b69e2fb
I'm finding something hard to understand why the treewidth of a tree is $1$. By the definition of tree-decomposition, I may select to have a single $X_1$ to contain all vertices. All requirements hold.
If we are referring to the $|X_1|$ it will be $n$ and then the tree width is $n-1$. If we are referring to the quantity of such sets, so we have only $X_1$, therefore the treewidth is $1-1=0$.
Likewise, this can be for any graph, not only trees. We can always decide $X_1$ will contain all vertices...
So I am not sure why it is claimed that the treewidth of a tree is exactly $1$? I think I'm missing out something in the understanding, and I'm looking for an explanation to this, and maybe one more example for a non-tree graph when the treewidth isn't trivially $1$.
Also, I read that $k$-treewidth do not contain $K_{k+2}$ as a minor. I'm not looking for a proof,but merely an intuition.
Edit: I understand now the width is the minimal maximal bag size. However, I still fail to see why any tree has width $1$. If the idea is $1$ bag for $1$ edge, wouldn't this be the case for any graph too? Why will it only work for a tree?