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I should preface this by saying that my background in Algebraic Geometry is (more or less) the content of Vakil's notes up through Chapter 4 (i.e. through the definition of a scheme and several examples, I haven't yet read carefully about Proj).

I am finding myself unmotivated to move further on in these notes, since I don't so much see the point of scheme theory. I am not stupid enough to think that there isn't a point, so I was wondering if someone could motivate (even briefly) the study of this (admittedly difficult) abstraction. I am only vaguely familiar with the classical case, so perhaps that has something to do with it.

Thanks.

Elle Najt
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    Here's a somewhat similar question with lots of answers on MathOverflow: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/59071/what-elementary-problems-can-you-solve-with-schemes – KReiser Sep 01 '14 at 01:50
  • http://www.math.uiuc.edu/Macaulay2/Book/ComputationsBook/chapters/schemes/chapter-wrapper.pdf – isomorphismes May 21 '15 at 22:40
  • Personally, one of my main motivations is the precise sense in which$$\label{1}\tag{1}(\text{classical algebraic geometry})\subset (\text{scheme theory}).$$This is the “classical-schematic equivalence,” and you can read more about it here and here. Once that the idea \eqref{1} has been settled, one can start exploring ideas regarding varieties that can be done with schemes but not as easily with the classical theory. Patotski's answer is a good start for this. – Elías Guisado Villalgordo Jul 08 '23 at 10:51

3 Answers3

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I think that perhaps you're asking a slightly wrong question. If you don't have any motivation to learn schemes (e.g. from Vakil's notes), then probably that's not what you should be studying right now.

Instead, try to learn some classical algebraic geometry, such as the basics of the theory of curves. Miles Reid's Undergraduate algebraic geometry is a good place to start (even if you're not an undergraduate); Silverman's Arithmetic of elliptic curves (the first volume) ultimately veers towards number theory (not that that's a bad thing!), but begins with quit a bit of geometry of curves. Chapters IV and V of Hartshorne give a beautiful treatment of some of the basics of curves and surfaces, although from a view-point that is slightly unforgiving for a novice (even if you're willing to take the earlier foundational material on faith).

In any case, if you look at a few such texts, you can see whether you actually like algebraic geometry, and also (if you do) whether your taste lies more towards geometry proper, or more towards arithmetic geometry/number theory.

At that point, as you begin to pursue your inclinations in more depth, you will naturally find yourself needing to learn scheme-theoretic foundations, and hopefully will have the motivation to do so.


Okay, after that rant, here is a more literal answer to your question:

firstly, schemes are not necessary for the study of algebraic geometry (there are plenty of excellent geometers with a more analytic bent, who use complex analytic, and related, techniques, rather than schemes), but they form one of the basic approaches to the modern theory, and are particularly indispensable in arithmetic geometry (the part of algebraic geometry that overlaps with number theory; basically it refers to the study by algebraic geometry methods of Diophantine equations).

An affine algebraic variety is basically something cut out by some equations $f_1 = \cdots f_r = 0$ in some variables $x_1,\ldots,x_n$, with coefficients in some field $k$. We can encode this in the ring $k[x_1,\ldots,x_n]/(f_1,\ldots,f_r).$

If you worry about the actual solutions to this equation, you start to fuss about whether or not this ring has nilpotents (because elements of $k$ can't tell the difference between the condition $x^2 = 0$ and the simpler condition $x = 0$), but Grothendieck's idea is just to take the ring itself.

Then, in e.g. number theory applications, we want to replace $k$ by $\mathbb Z$ or the $p$-adic integers. Or if we have equations depending on parameters, then the $f_i$ won't have coeffs. just in $k$, but in the ring obtained by adjoining the parameters to $k$.

This leads to more general rings than just f.g. algebras over fields.

Finally, a key fact in classical alg. geom. is that we can "glue" affine varieties together to make e.g. projective varieties, because affine varieties have a topology (the Zariski topology).

Grothendieck saw how to convert a ring into a space with a topology, a so-called affine scheme, and then defined schemes to be the things you can get by gluing together affine schemes. Because of wanting to remember rings themselves, and not just the points obtained by solving equations in fields, he had to add a structure sheaf to the data, so schemes are not just top. spaces, but locally ringed spaces.

As you can see, I mentioned three key ideas as motivation: the possibility of nilpotents (already mentioned by Sasha Patoski), the possibility of working over $\mathbb Z$ in number theory applications, and the possibility of working with parameters. These are the three big applications of scheme-theoretic ideas, but to really get the point of them in any detail, you need to know something about classical algebraic geometry and/or number theory, to get a feeling for the kind of problems that come up and that are resolved by scheme-theoretic arguments/techniques.

guy-in-seoul
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One of the possible explanations why considering schemes is important is the following. In some sense, schemes are like varieties, but "with nilpotents". What I mean is the following.

Suppose you are intersecting two plain curves $y=0$ and $y=x$, and also intersect $y=0$ with $y=x^2$. Set-theoretically, in both cases you get the origin $(0,0)$. But really in any small neighborhood the picture will be different in these two cases. So, considering set-theoretic intersection will lose information (it will not remember where this point came from, i.e. it will forget the infinitesimal information about the intersection). But, if you consider the ideals these equations define (i.e. consider scheme-theoretic intersection), you will get different answers. Indeed, the intersection in the first case will be given by the quotient $k[x,y]/(y,x-y)\simeq k[x]/x\simeq k$. In the second case you will get $k[x,y]/(y,y-x^2)\simeq k[x]/(x^2)$. So the scheme "remembers" where the intersection of the curves (the origin) came from.

This example is not very far from general case. Indeed, whenever you have a scheme $X$, you can obtain another scheme $X^{red}$, closed points of which will give you variety. A very nice introduction into schemes which gives a lot of examples and motivation (and which also explains what $X^{red}$ means) is the book by Eisenbud-Harris called "Geometry of schemes".

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When faced with an abstraction that feels unmotivated, I try to (1) look to the historical context and (2) look for clues that it's somehow natural.

Set the stage with the collapse of the Italian school of algebraic geometry. The field had outgrown its foundations. Could algebraic geometry be put on solid footing while salvaging these techniques, like generic points? One idea was to use commutative algebra as a basis. Then, there was the search for a Weil cohomology theory to prove the Weil conjectures, and, in general, a way to apply algebraic topology to seemingly-discrete objects from algebra and number theory, like finite fields. After all, topological techniques were already useful for proving fundamentally algebraic results, like the fundamental theorem of algebra, in settings we already knew how to apply it.

Schemes fit these goals exactly. They are built from commutative algebra. They mirror the construction of manifolds. They have generic points. They're not only geometric enough to give you a cohomology theory, but they even give you a notion of derivatives via nilpotents.

What makes the seemingly-strange construction natural? I'm still green, but here's what I have so far. Look back on classical algebraic geometry, the study of solution sets of polynomials, with modern algebra. We have the ring

$$ \mathbb{C}[x,y], $$

and we want to study systems of equations, $$p_1(x,y) = 0,\dots p_n(x,y)=0.$$ But we don't really care about the specific polynomials. We want all their consequences. We want to zero-out the whole ideal $$ (p_1,\dots p_n)\mapsto 0. $$ Any set of generators of this ideal will do fine.

Every point in $\mathbb{C}^2$ embeds as a system of polynomials—erm, maximal ideal: $$ (a,b) \mapsto \left(x-a, y-b\right), $$ so we don't need treat evaluating polynomials as a separate thing. It's just a special case of modding out by an ideal. A particularly useful consequence embedding is ring homomorphisms on the polynomials $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$ will carry the base-space with it.

There's one problem, though. Ring homomorphisms do induce a pullback map on ideals, but it may not preserve maximality. It does, however preserve primality. I find this easiest to see by thinking in terms of quotients.

Suppose we have the ring homomorphism $f: A \to B$ and $B$ has an ideal $I$, with associated quotient map $q: B \to B/I$. Then

$$A \xrightarrow{f} B \xrightarrow{q} B/I.$$ Then $q\circ f: A \to B/I$ factors through the quotient under the preimage ideal $f^{-1}(I)$, so

$$A/f^{-1}(I) \hookrightarrow B/I$$ is injective. If $I$ is prime, then $B/I$ has no zerodivisors, hence any subring has no zerodivisors. Conclude $f^{-1}(I)$ is prime too. On the other hand, if $I$ is maximal, then $B/I$ is a field. But not every subring of a field is a field—most aren't!

The base space doesn't want to be all maximal ideals, it wants to be all prime ideals. So we have to ask, what are the nonmaximal prime ideals? They are irreducible varieties. What do we make of this? You already know the punchline from Vakil, but they're the generic points.

Besides functoriality, why is this "natural"? Vakil's Exercise 3.2.1(a) shows it in action. There's an inclusion $$ i:\mathbb{Q}[x,y] \hookrightarrow \mathbb{R}[x,y] $$ which induces a function in the opposite direction on their base spaces: $$ i^*: \text{Spec}(\mathbb{R}[x,y]) \to \text{Spec}(\mathbb{Q}[x,y]) $$ This can't be a map $$ \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{Q}^2 $$ because we need to send $(\pi,\pi^2)$ somewhere. But because $\pi$ is transcendental, the best we can do is send it to the generic point on $y=x^2$. Algebraically, this is sensible. The rationals can recognize $(\pi,\pi^2)$ lies on the parabola, so it would be a waste to throw that away. But they can't get any more specific. It's as if you said $(t,t^2)$, as far as $\mathbb Q$ is concerned. Generic points fit naturally into this picture.

The Zariski topology, too, is natural. It's the topology induced by polynomials, in the sense that it's the coarsest topology where the preimage of any single point is closed. Its apparent pathologies accurately reflect the algebra: there's only so much polynomials can see, they can only grow so fast. Even if you look only at closed points in $\text{Spec}\mathbb C [x,y]$, Hausdorffness fails. But it has to! Nonzero polynomials can only make giant open sets because their zeros are rare.

For the structure sheaf, it's sort-of forced on you if you want to study rational (or meromorphic) functions. Without cutoff functions, which are non-analytic, you can't edit out the singularities, so you have to shrink the domain. And the shrinking had better commute, so you get a prescheme. But we also want consistency for a sheaf's sections as you shrink or grow the domain, hence the identity and gluing axioms. We want $$(x,y)\mapsto \frac{1}{x^2+y^2}$$ to be "the same thing" no matter which open set we are looking at.

One sheaf that helped me is the sheaf of inverses of a holomorphic function, for example $\exp$. You can define $\log$ by taking a branch cut, but this choice is arbitrary. Even worse, it introduces a discontinuity. Instead, you can take all possible $\log$s together as a sheaf. And, via analytic continuation, the whole thing is determined by its germ at one point.

Riley
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  • Do you have a source on sheaf of inverses of a holomorphic function? I tried searching online and no one is talking about it. Even in your example, I'm not sure what topological space your sheaf is defined on. – D.R. Mar 18 '25 at 06:50
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    I will try to remember where I saw them.

    For the inverses of $\exp$, the base space is $\mathbb{C}\backslash {0}$ with the standard topology. For a neighborhood $U$, consider the set of $f:U \to \mathbb C$ such that $\exp\circ f = \text{id}$. Because $e^{2\pi i}=1$, any $f+2\pi i N$ (for integral $N$) is also in this set:

    $\exp(f+2\pi i N) = e^f e^{2\pi i} = e^f = \text{id}$

    This is a presheaf because it is a construction that works for any neighborhood in $\mathbb{C}\backslash{0}$ and reverses inclusion. It's a sheaf because a function is determined by its value on every subset

    – Riley Apr 18 '25 at 20:11