Well, I am afraid this is a silly question because I know the answer must be 'yes, it does'. But I don't see why. I put the problem in context.
The ricci tensor can be regarded as a differential operator acting of metrics (it is an expression that depends on second and first derivatives of the metric). You give the ricci a metric on your manifold $M$ an the ricci gives you a symmetric two tensor. It is non linear. $$ Ric: \{\text{metrics on } M\} \to \{\text{symmetric two-tensors on }M\} $$ So one says that the ricci tensor is elliptic at the metric $g$ if its differential at $g$ denoted by $L:=d_g Ric$ is elliptic. Note that since {metrics on $M$} are an open set of the vector space of symmetric two-tensors, we have $$ L: \{\text{symmetric two tensors}\} \to \{\text{symmetric two tensors}\} $$ and $L$ is a linear differential operator of order two.
Recall that $L$ is by definition elliptic if for every $\xi \in T^*_x M$ its principal symbol $$ p(\xi,x): \{\text{symmetric bilinear forms on } x \} \to \{\text{symmetric bilinear forms on } x \} $$ is an isomorphism for $\xi \ne 0$. In coordinates the principal symbol is obtained just by taking the part that involves two derivatives, and in that part changing every $\nabla_i$ you find in for $\xi_i$, the $i-th$ coordinates of $\xi$. It turns out that $p(\xi,x)$ does not depend or coordinates regarded as a endomorphism between vector spaces.
Indeed, let $z$ be a symmetric bilinear form on $T_x M$ and let $u$ be a symmetric two tensor on $M$ such that $u(x)=z$. Let $\phi$ be a smooth function on $M$ with $\phi(x)=0$ and $d_x \phi =\xi$. Then $p(x,\xi)z = L(\phi ^2 u)|_x$. This invariant definition is on Besse's Einstein Manifolds.
So the principal symbol regarded as a endomorphism between vector spaces does not depend on coordinates, so being elliptic should not depend on coordinates either. But the books, for example Besse's Einstein Manifolds, says that the ricci tensor is elliptic in harmonic coordinates, and it is not elliptic in any coordinates.
I must say that is never explicitly said that the ricci operator is not elliptic in any coordinates, but I deduce that because the elliptic regularity results are not true in any coordinates.
The question is ¿how is it possible that being elliptic depens on coordinates?
Thank you for any help.