8

The q-Pochhammer symbol $[n]_q!$ is defined as $$[n]_q! = \frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})\cdots(1-q)}{(1-q)^n} = (1+q) (1+q+q^2) \cdots (1+q+\cdots+q^{n-1})$$

It can be easily shown that $[n]_q!$ (function of indeterminate $q$) is symmetric and unimodal, since it is the product of symmetric and unimodal sequences.

The q-binomial coefficient is defined similarly as, $${n \choose k}_q = \frac{[n]_q!}{[k]_q![{n-k}]_q!}$$

It can be easily seen that ${n \choose k}_q$ is a polynomial in $q$ (and not a rational polynomial in $q$) from the recurrence relation

$${n \choose k}_q = q^k {{n-1} \choose k}_q + {{n-1} \choose {k-1}}_q $$

Can somebody show me an easy way to prove that ${n \choose k}_q$ is also symmetric and unimodal?

Edit: A polynomial in indeterminate $x$, F(x) = $\sum_{i=0}^n a_i x^i$ is defined to be symmetric when the sequence $\{a_i\}_{i=0}^n$ is unimodal and symmetric. The sequence $\{a_i\}_{i=0}^n$ is defined to be unimodal and symmetric if -

$$a_0 \leq a_1 \leq .... \leq a_{\lfloor{n/2}\rfloor}$$

and $$a_k = a_{n-k}$$

Now for ${n \choose k}_q = F(q)$, we have $F(q) = q^{{(nk-k^2)}} F(1/q)$ therefore, $F(q)$ must be symmetric (in the above sense). How do I show it to be unimodal?

  • 2
    Unimodality of q-binomial coefficients is a difficult theorem, proved more than 20 years after it was conjectured. If you're really interested in a proof — it's easy to google references. – Grigory M Jan 15 '15 at 23:57
  • 2
    For future reference for others who might find this page, a detailed discussion of this problem appears in Stanley, Log‐Concave and Unimodal Sequences in Algebra, Combinatorics, and Geometry, Annals of the New York Academy of Sciences, 1989 - see p501 and Thm 11 on p516. – Balazs May 24 '18 at 17:30
  • 3
    Indeed, Stanley's article says explicitly that "the unimodality of the sequence [of q-binomial coefficients for $q \geq 0$ and $k$ varying] should not be confused with the problem of showing that for fixed k and n the coefficients [of the q-binomial] are unimodal. This is a much more difficult problem...." The two existing answers both address the former question, while the OP evidently was interested in the latter question. At least to my knowledge, no substantially simpler proof of the latter question has been found since Stanley's article was written. – Joshua P. Swanson Aug 06 '18 at 22:52

2 Answers2

2

This is a famously difficult problem in combinatorics. The following is the outline of an algebraic proof by Richard Stanley, using the theory from his textbook Algebraic Combinatorics.

The proof requires the theory of graded posets. A poset is a set equipped with a partial order. If $x,y$ are poset elements, we say $x$ covers $y$ if $x> y$, and there is no poset element $z$ with $x>z>y$. Then, a poset is called graded if there exists a rank function defined on the poset, such whenever $x$ covers $y$, the rank of $x$ is one more than the rank of $y$. We also usually normalize things so all minimal elements of the poset have rank zero. Finally, a poset is called rank-unimodal if the sequence of sizes of the ranks is unimodal, increasing up to a widest point in the poset's middle and decreasing thereafter.

A common example of a poset is $B_n$, the Boolean poset of the set of subsets of an $n$ element set. Stanley's big theorem concerns a certain quotient poset of $B_n$. Given a subgroup $G$ of $S_n$, the symmetric group on the same $n$-element set, we get an induced action on $B_n$ in a natural way. We then turn the set of orbits of this action into a poset, by saying for all $S,T\in B_n$ that $\text{orbit}(S)\le \text{orbit}(T)$ whenever there exists permutations $g_1,g_2\in G$ such that $g_1(S)\subseteq g_2(T)$. This poset on orbits is denoted $B_n/G$.

Theorem: (Stanley) Let $G$ be a subgroup of $S_n$. Then the quotient poset $B_n/G$ is rank unimodal.

I omit the proof, but you can read it in Stanley's book hosted by Stanley for free online, Theorem 5.8.

Therefore, in order to prove that the coefficient sequence of $\binom{n}{k}_q$ is rank unimodal, it suffices to find a poset where the size of the $i^{th}$ rank is the coefficnet of $q^i$ in $\binom{n}k_q$, for each $0\le i\le k(n-k)$, and prove that this poset can be realized as the quotient of a Boolean poset by a group action.

For positive integers $m,n$, let $L(m,n)$ be the poset of integer partitions with at most $n$ parts, where every part is at most $m$, where $(\lambda_1,\dots,\lambda_n)\le (\mu_1,\dots,\mu_n)$ if $\lambda_i\le \mu_i$ for all $i\in \{1,\dots,n\}$. Equivalently, these are lattice paths in an $m\times n$ rectangle, ordered by subset inclusion of the regions beneath the path. It is well known that the rank of path is the area of the region beneath, and that the numbers of paths with each rank exactly match the coefficients of $\binom{m+n}{m}_q$.

To realize this as a quotient of a Boolean poset, we will use $B_{m\times n}$, where we think of this as subsets of the $m\times n$ boxes forming the lattice rectangle spanned by $(0,0)$ and $(m,n)$. The permutation group $G$ acting on this array of boxes is as follows: $G$ is the set of permutations given by arbitrarily permuting within each row, and then permuting the rows themselves. It can be shown for any subset $S$ of the grid, the orbit of $S$ under this action will contain exactly one subset where every row is left-justified, and every columns is bottom-justified, which exactly corresponds to the region below some lattice paths. In this way, we can see that $L(m,n)$ is just the quotient of $B_{m\times n}$ by this action. Applying Stanley's theorem, we conclude the coefficents of $\binom{m+n}{m}_q$ are unimodal.

Over the years, other proofs have been given.

  1. Igor Pak and Greta Panova gave a proof using Schur functions: https://arxiv.org/abs/1306.5085

  2. Kathy O'hara gave a combinatorial proof. Here is an exposition of her proof by Doron Zeilberger: https://www.jstor.org/stable/2325177

Mike Earnest
  • 84,902
1

The symmetry ${n \choose k}_q = {n \choose n-k}_q$ follows immediately from the formula ${n \choose k} = [n]_q! \bigl/ \bigl([k]_q! [n-k]_q!\bigr)\bigr.$. Unimodality for all $q>0$ follows from the fact that $\bigl\{{n \choose k}_q\bigr\}_{k=0}^n$ is log-concave: $$ {n \choose k}_q^2 > {n \choose k-1}_q \,{n \choose k+1}_q $$ (all $k=1,2,\ldots,n-1$), which in turn follows from the fact that the sequence $\{[n]_q!\}_{n=0}^\infty$ is log-convex (i.e. $[n]_q^2 < [n-1]_q [n+1]_q$ for all $n>0$). Both of these generalize proofs for classical binomial coefficients ${n \choose k} = n! / (k! (n-k)!)$.

  • Could you give me a proof for the changed definition? – UnadulteratedImagination Dec 07 '13 at 21:59
  • Have you tried using the same technique? It might even come down to literally the same argument with $q$ replaced by $1/q$. Or you could compute the ratio ${n\choose k+1}_q , \big/ , {n \choose k}_q$ between two consective terms, and check directly that it's $>1$ before $n/2$ and $<1$ after $n/2$. – Noam D. Elkies Dec 08 '13 at 18:28
  • 3
    I don't see how computing the ratio would give me an idea of the ratio of the coefficients of the polynomial... – UnadulteratedImagination Dec 11 '13 at 21:36