Note: This question was cross-posted from MO.
Preamble: I apologize in advance if this particular MSE post would appear to be a bit of a polymath approach, I just had to put down all the details to present my argument for this particular math problem.
A positive integer $N$ is said to be perfect if $\sigma(N)=2N$, where $\sigma(x)$ is the sum of the divisors of $x$.
An odd perfect number $N$ is said to be given in Eulerian form if $N = {q^k}{n^2}$, where $q$ is prime, $q \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(q,n)=1$.
Since $\gcd(q,n)=1$ and prime powers are deficient, we have $q \neq n$ and $q^k \neq n$.
In an earlier version of the paper The Abundancy Index of Divisors of Odd Perfect Numbers (see here), it was conjectured that the biconditional
$$q^k < n \Longleftrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n) \Longleftrightarrow \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} < \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$
is true. (Note that the proof of the inequation
$$\frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} \neq \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$
is trivial.)
Recently, an attempt to prove the said biconditional appears to have been completed in this preprint.
I present here the highlights of the said proof:
One direction of the biconditional is trivial:
<p>$$q^k < n \Longrightarrow \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} < \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}.$$</p> <p>This is proved by noting that $I(q^k) < \sqrt[3]{2} < I(n)$ (where $I(x) = \sigma(x)/x$ is the <em>abundancy index</em> of $x$), from which the following chain of implications follow:</p> <p>$$q^k < n \Longrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n)$$ $$q^k < n \Longrightarrow \frac{1}{n} < \frac{1}{q^k}$$ $$\{\sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n)\} \land \{\frac{1}{n} < \frac{1}{q^k}\} \Longrightarrow \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} < \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$</p> <p>Therefore:</p> <p>$$q^k < n \Longrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n) \Longrightarrow \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} < \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}.$$</p>
For the other direction:
The implication
<p>$$\frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} < \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k} \Longrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n)$$ can be proved, again by observing that $I(q^k) < \sqrt[3]{2} < I(n)$.</p> <p>Now, to prove the last implication:</p> <p>$$\sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n) \Longrightarrow q^k < n$$</p> <p>we take an indirect approach.</p>
First we show that:
If $N = {q^k}{n^2}$ is an odd perfect number given in Eulerian form and
<p>$$I(q^k) + I(n) < \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k},$$</p> <p>then $q^k < n \Longleftrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n)$.</p>
Similarly, we can prove that:
If $N = {q^k}{n^2}$ is an odd perfect number given in Eulerian form and
<p>$$\frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k} < I(q^k) + I(n),$$</p> <p>then $q^k < n \Longleftrightarrow \sigma(n) < \sigma(q^k)$.</p>
Observe that
$$I(q^k) + I(n) = \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$
if and only if
$$\sigma(q^k) = \sigma(n).$$
Also, observe that if we assume
$$\frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k} < I(q^k) + I(n)$$
then the biconditional
$$q^k < n \Longleftrightarrow \sigma(n) < \sigma(q^k)$$
will contradict $I(q^k) < \sqrt[3]{2} < I(n)$.
Therefore, the following inequality must be true:
<p>$$I(q^k) + I(n) \leq \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}.$$</p>
It suffices to consider the case when
$$I(q^k) + I(n) = \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$
which is true if and only if
$$\sigma(q^k) = \sigma(n).$$
This last equation, together with the inequality $I(q^k) < \sqrt[3]{2} < I(n)$, implies that
$$1 = \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{\sigma(n)} < \frac{q^k}{n}$$
from which it follows that $n < q^k$. Thus, $1/q^k < 1/n$, which then gives, together with the equation $\sigma(n) = \sigma(q^k)$, the inequality
$$\frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k} < \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n}.$$
But this last inequality, together with $I(q^k) < \sqrt[3]{2} < I(n)$, is known to imply
$$n < q^k.$$
Consequently, if
<p>$$I(q^k) + I(n) = \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n} + \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k}$$</p> <p>then</p> <p>$$n < q^k \Longleftrightarrow \frac{\sigma(n)}{q^k} < \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{n}$$ </p>
Now, here is the part where I am a bit unsure about logical solidity:
Lastly, note that since
$$\sigma(q^k) = \sigma(n)$$
implies $n < q^k$, the biconditional
$$q^k < n \Longleftrightarrow \sigma(q^k) < \sigma(n)$$
is vacuously true, under this case.
NOW HERE IS MY QUESTION (and this is also the main reason for this MSE post):
<p>I have been told that there is a <em>gap</em> in the last part of this proof. As I myself am having a hard time spotting where that particular <em>error</em> is, would somebody be kind enough as to help by skimming through this argument and then (after glossing over the details) give it either a <em>PASS</em> or a <em>FAIL</em>?</p>
$$1 = \frac{\sigma(q^k)}{\sigma(n)} < \frac{q^k}{n}$$
from which it follows that $\sigma(q^k) = \sigma(n)$ does imply $q^k > n$ -- all of these of course under the assumption that there exists an odd perfect number $N = {q^k}{n^2}$.
– Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Nov 04 '13 at 14:34(1) $q$ is prime with $q \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$, (2) $\gcd(q, n) = 1$.
Let me know if you have any more questions and / or comments, @Tharsis! Appreciate it... =)
– Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris Nov 04 '13 at 14:39