I am trying to wrap my head around the reason why the moment of approximation matters for the end result of my analysis.
As an example, let's take an equation for which we can still find the full solution without approximations: $$\tag{1} \frac{a^4}{x^2} + (a + b) x^2 -c = 0$$ where $a$, $b$ and $c$ are positive and real. I can solve this equation analytically for $x$ and find:
$$\tag{2} x=\pm \frac{\sqrt{\frac{\sqrt{-4 a^5-4 a^4 b+c^2}}{a+b}\pm\frac{c}{a+b}}}{\sqrt{2}}$$
If I now make an approximation to this function by assuming $a$ to be small and taking a first order Taylor expansion I find: $$\tag{3} x\approx \pm \frac{\sqrt{c} (a-2 b)}{2 b^{3/2}} \; \text{and} \; x\approx\pm 0$$
However, if I would already take the Taylor series for small $a$ for equation (1) then I find $$\tag{4} x\approx\pm \sqrt{\frac{c}{a+b}}$$ which is close to (3) but not quite the same (except for $a=0$).
My question is: what is the reason that the moment of approximation matters? Is this related to the fact that the $1/x^2$ term is lost with the second strategy or is something different at play? And what is normally the appropriate moment to do an approximation? As early as possible, as late as possible, or does this depend on the case?