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I am solving an exercise from A Primer for Logic and Proof (Hirst & Hirst) using the book's axiom system. One of the (meta)theorems available is leaving me unsure if I applied it correctly, as it is stated intuitively and not super formally.

Here are the relevant axioms/theorems I use in the proof, as stated in the book:

Axiom 4: $\forall x A(x) \Rightarrow A(t)$ $\quad$ provided $t$ is free for $x$ in $A(x)$

Rule C: If $\exists x A (x)$ is a previous line in a proof, we may write $A(\underline{c})$ as a line, provided the following two conditions hold:

  1. $\underline{c}$ is a new constant symbol (That is $\underline{c}$ doesn't show up in any earlier lines of the proof, or in any proper axioms we ever plan to use.)
  2. If some variable (say $y$) appears free in the formula $\exists x A(x)$, then Generalization is never applied to $y$ in the proof.

Adding $\exists$: If $\forall x A(x) \Rightarrow A(t)$ is a correct instance of Axiom 4, then from $A(t)$ we may deduce $\exists x A(x)$

There are other lemmas I use, but I omit them here for brevity, as they do not cause problems. The exercise and the proof are as follows:

$$\text{Prove: } (\forall x A(x) \wedge \exists x B(x)) \Rightarrow \exists x (A(x) \wedge B(x))$$

Proof.

$\textbf{1. }\forall x A(x) \wedge \exists x B(x) \quad \text{Given (setup for Deduction Theorem)}$

$\textbf{2. } \forall x A(x) \quad \text{Conjunction elimination (lemma), 1}$

$\textbf{3. } \exists x B(x) \quad \text{Conjunction elimination (lemma), 1}$

$\textbf{4. } B(\underline{c}) \quad \text{Rule C, 3}$

$\textbf{5. } \forall x A(x) \Rightarrow A(\underline{c}) \quad \text{Axiom 4}$

$\textbf{6. } A(\underline{c}) \quad \text{Modus Ponens, 2,5}$

$\textbf{7. } A(\underline{c}) \wedge B(\underline{c}) \quad \text{Conjunction introduction (lemma), 4,6}$

$\textbf{8. } \exists x (A(x) \wedge B(x)) \quad \text{Adding } \exists \text{, 7}$

$\textbf{9. } (\forall x A(x) \wedge \exists x B(x)) \Rightarrow \exists x (A(x) \wedge B(x)) \quad \text{Deduction Theorem, 1,8}$


My main concern is this: Is it legal to use Axiom 4 in line 5 containing the constant $\underline{c}$? The restriction for Rule C states that $\underline{c}$ may not appear in any proper axioms we ever plan to use - but the term "proper axiom" is never defined in the book. There aren't many results for this online, but it seems to refer to a non-logical axiom. Does this make Axiom 4 exempt from the restriction, allowing the use of $\underline{c}$? I also use the axiom after the use of Rule C, hopefully abiding to the restriction that $\underline{c}$ may not appear before the rule, but should be okay to appear again after. I can not find these exact axioms/rules with such variable restrictions elsewhere, there seem to be other variances but not exactly the same.

Edit Deduction Theorem:

If there is a proof of $A \vdash B$ with no applications of generalization to any variables that occur free in $A$, then there is a proof of $\vdash A \Rightarrow B$

Primož
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    The use of Ax.4 in line 5 is fine. What seems not correct is line 8. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jun 01 '25 at 06:39
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Thanks for the feedback on Axiom 4. In line 8, it is my understanding that $\forall x (A(x) \wedge B(x)) \Rightarrow (A(\underline{c}) \wedge B(\underline{c}))$ is a correct instance of Axiom 4, given that a constant is always free for $x$ - allowing the addition of $\exists$. I also found an almost identical step in a worked example, thinking I could use it like that all the time. Could you elaborate on where the mistake is? – Primož Jun 01 '25 at 06:53
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Oh, I think I know where the confusion is. Add $\exists$ is a metatheorem/algorithm for obtaining $\exists x A (x)$ from $A(t)$. In the book, the full procedure is a 6-step pattern, where $\forall x \neg(A(x) \wedge B(x)) \Rightarrow \neg(A(c) \wedge B(c))$ is used, and then made into a contrapositive, allowing the modus ponens to be used with $A(c) \wedge B(c)$ as the minor premise. Then after manipulating negations, $\forall$ is turned into $\exists$. When using the shortcut, all of this is implicit, but it is the background mechanism. Hopefully I got it right. – Primož Jun 01 '25 at 07:02
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    I don't see the problem with line 8. "$\forall xA(x)\Rightarrow A(t)$ is a correct instance of Axiom 4" just seems to be a weird way of writing "$t$ is free for $x$ in $A(x)$". – Stefan Jun 01 '25 at 07:54
  • @TankutBeygu My question appears similar to the linked question, but it is not and I do not see how an edit would convince you at this point. Natural deduction (Gentzen-style) variable restrictions differ from my particular Hilbert-style system. An answer in the linked post touches on Existential Instantiation with fewer restrictions than in my book's different system. None of the other rules (Universal Instantiation/Generalization and Existential Generalization) are the same, either. – Primož Jun 01 '25 at 20:10

1 Answers1

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Line 5 is fine, but your questions show you haven't understood the spirit of Rule C.

Rule C says: if you know that a predicate is satisfied by some object, you are allowed to "choose" such an object and give it a name.

Condition 1 just says that that name must not be already in use. Otherwise we could write $A(\emptyset)$ or $A(\mathbb{N})$ on a line, which would make a statement about an existing constant instead of introducing a new constant.

There is no problem at all with using $\underline{c}$ after the application of Rule C. In fact, that is the whole point of it. You introduce a new constant symbol so that you can later refer to it. Directly after the introduction, the one and only thing you know about $\underline{c}$ is that $A(\underline{c})$ holds, and everything you later state about $\underline{c}$ will be deduced from that.

Stefan
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  • Thank you for the explanation. You're right, I was focusing too much on the syntax/mechanical manipulation of symbols, not focusing on the purpose/intuition. We know that $\underline{c}$ exists, but nothing more, preventing us from connecting it to an existing constant carrying additional information! Anything deducible just from knowing that property $A(\underline{c})$ holds, is completely valid! $A(\emptyset)$ or $A(\mathbb{N})$ (or anything else) might even turn out to hold eventually, but we don't know that yet. Makes tons of sense, thanks! – Primož Jun 01 '25 at 08:05
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    @Primož Great, seems like you got it. – Stefan Jun 01 '25 at 08:20