Considering a finite field function field $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$, we have $x^p = x$. If this were to be true, we would have finitely many unique polynomials in any finite field -- $p^{p}$ to be exact. For example, in $\mathbb{F}_2$ we would have $\{0,1,x,x+1\}$ as unique irreducibles as say $x^2+x+1 \equiv 1$. In this case, $Gal(\overline{\mathbb{F}_2}/ \mathbb{F}_2)$ would be trivial, but I assume this is not the case.
Is this correct? If it is not, why is that the case?