I'm not seeing what's so convincing about the following proof.
Let $x_1 = 1$ and for each $n \in N$, define $x_{n+1} = (\frac{1}{2}) x_n +1$.
To show $x_n \leq x_{n+1}$ for all values of $n \in N$, I'm told that all we need to do is define the following: $\frac{1}{2} x_n +1 \leq \frac{1}{2} x_{n+1} + 1$, which is the desired conclusion of $x_{n+1} \leq x_{n+2}$ .
I'm not seeing how this proof is so compelling. For example, what's preventing me from setting the inequality in the opposite direction, like:
$\frac{1}{2} x_n +1 \geq \frac{1}{2} x_{n+1} + 1$ ?
I've looked at a number of other related posts, but nothing seems to address this issue.