The set of complex numbers is: $$\mathbb{C}=\left\{a+bi:a,b\in\mathbb{R},i\notin\mathbb{R},i^{2}=-1\right\}$$ The set of split numbers is: $$\mathbb{D}=\left\{a+bj:a,b\in\mathbb{R},j\notin\mathbb{R},j^{2}=1\right\}$$ The set of dual numbers is: $$\mathbb{E}=\left\{a+b\varepsilon:a,b\in\mathbb{R},\varepsilon\notin\mathbb{R},\varepsilon^{2}=0\right\}$$
The first step should be the same for all three, so we'll generalise. Let $\kappa\in\{i,j,\varepsilon\}$ be one of the units, $z=x+y\kappa$ be a variable with $x,y\in\mathbb{R}$ and $f(z)=u(z)+\kappa v(z)$ be a function. We wish for $f$ to be assigned the title holomorphic. Here's the best I understand it:
The Jacobian of $f$ is $$Df=\begin{pmatrix} \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\\ \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \end{pmatrix}$$ From what I can gather, $f$ will be holomorphic if the Jacobian takes on the form of the matrix representation of a given number. In $\mathbb{C}$ we may use $$a+bi\cong\begin{pmatrix} a & -b\\ b & a \end{pmatrix}$$ Comparing, we see that the equalities to satisfy are $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=a=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}$$ $$-\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=b=\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}$$ which is just the Cauchy-Riemann equations. If we transpose, so switch $b$ and $-b$, nothing changes in the conclusion. Now the total derivative of $f$ is $a+bi$, or rather $$\frac{df}{dz}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}-i\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}+i\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+i\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}-i\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}$$
Now the split numbers, where we have $$a+bj\cong\begin{pmatrix} a & b\\ b & a \end{pmatrix}$$ We get the following set of equations: $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=a=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}$$ $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=b=\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}$$ These are Scheffers' conditions, and again the total derivative of $f$ is $a+bj$, so $$\frac{df}{dz}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+j\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}+j\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+j\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}+j\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}$$ If these look right so far, we can get onto the bit that's giving me pause. The dual numbers. Some people seem to use the convention I'll call convention 1. $$a+b\varepsilon\cong\begin{pmatrix} a & b\\ 0 & a \end{pmatrix}$$ Others seem to use what I'll call convention 2. $$a+b\varepsilon\cong\begin{pmatrix} a & 0\\ b & a \end{pmatrix}$$ With the other two, transposing gave the same conditions. Here, they give two different pairs. The main diagonal has been the same for all of these, so we get the same first equation. $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=a=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}$$ Now, under convention 1, we are told $$\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=0$$ $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=b\text{ may be any}$$ Under convention 2, we deduce $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=0$$ $$\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}=b\text{ may be any}$$ I don't know where to go. Is one of them actually a more canonical isomorphism, to do with the alignment and set-up of the Jacobian somehow? Or, since they're both valid isomorphisms, do we take the conjunction, setting both of those to $0$, so $b=0$, and finding that $$\frac{df}{dz}=\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}$$