7

This question is inspired by an answer of mine that I gave here. Basically the problem is as follows: you are given a recursively defined sequence $(x_n)_{n\geq0}$, where you know the value of $x_0$ and you know that $x_{n+1}=\varphi(x_n)$ for all $n\geq0$, where $\varphi$ is a known function. Let’s say that you can’t find $x_n$ explicitly because it’s too hard or whatever reason. But you still want to compute $\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}x_n$. Let’s assume that we already checked the series converges (e.g., numerically), so we are only concerned with the actual value of the sum. We hope that we can find this value by resorting to a telescoping technique.

Now, if we had an explicit formula for $x_n$ as a function of $n$, we could try to telescope directly on that expression, and I know that there are algorithms that allow you to do that, even if you can’t come up with a clever idea yourself. For example, if $x_n$ is a hypergeometric term of $n$ (i.e., $\frac{x_n}{x_{n-1}}$ is the ratio of two polynomial functions of $n$), then Gosper’s algorithm either gives you another hypergeometric term of $n$ (say $y_n$) such that $x_n=y_n-y_{n-1}$, or tells you it’s not possible. But if you do get this $y_n$, you can compute $$\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}x_n=x_0+\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}x_n=x_0+\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}(y_n-y_{n-1})\\=x_0+\lim_{n\to+\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n(y_k-y_{k-1})=x_0+\lim_{n\to+\infty}(y_n-y_0)\\=x_0-y_0+\lim_{n\to+\infty}y_n.$$

However, in our case, you can’t feed $x_n$ to Gosper’s algorithm because you simply don’t have an expression for that. That’s why, in the linked question, I found a function $f$ such that $x_n=f(x_n)-f(x_{n-1})$ (not literally this, but I’m trying to mirror the above paragraph), and then I telescoped like this: $$\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}x_n=x_0+\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}x_n=x_0+\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\big(f(x_n)-f(x_{n-1})\big)\\=x_0+\lim_{n\to+\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n\big(f(x_k)-f(x_{k-1})\big)=x_0+\lim_{n\to+\infty}\big(f(x_n)-f(x_0)\big)\\=x_0-f(x_0)+\lim_{n\to+\infty}f(x_n).$$

Why am I not satified? Because the specific $f$ I used in the linked question was basically suggested by people in the comments. So I wonder whether there exists an algorithm to determine such an $f$, or a systematic way to approach this type of problems. Without a proper method, we have to rely on intuition (which doesn’t always work, of course).

Edit

By writing $x_n=f(x_n)-f(x_{n-1})$ as $\varphi(x_{n-1})=f(\varphi(x_{n-1}))-f(x_{n-1})$, I think the problem boils down to the following question: for what type of $\varphi$ do we have methods to find $f$ satisfying $f(x)+\varphi(x)=f(\varphi(x))$? Is this a known functional equation?

  • Note that there is nothing very special about telescoping, here, $f$ is just the partial sum, you are asking for which function $\varphi$ it is possible to get a closed form of the partial sum. Are you asking for a special case, for example an algorithm that tell if there is a closed form in the case where $\varphi$ is a rational function? – caduk Nov 03 '24 at 15:19
  • @caduk I think you are pointing out that $\sum_{k=0}^{n}x_k-\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}x_k=x_n$. On the other hand, $\sum_{k=0}^mx_k$ can indeed be regarded as a function of $x_0$ only. E.g., if $m=2$, it is equal to $x_0+\varphi(x_0)+\varphi(\varphi(x_0))$. But how do you get an expression for $f$ using this? –  Nov 03 '24 at 15:32
  • I was just pointing out that finding $f$ is equivalent to finding the partial sum, which is a more natural question. In general, there is no closed form for all $\varphi$, which is why you need to restrict the scope of study to a specific class of function. – caduk Nov 03 '24 at 15:53
  • @caduk can you please elaborate on the equivalence? So you suggest that the problem can be approached successfully if $\varphi$ is taken to be a rational function (as you mentioned above)? –  Nov 04 '24 at 17:42
  • $f(0) = x_0$, $x_1 = f(1)-f(0)$, so $f(1) = x_1+f(0) = x_1+x_0$. By induction, $f(n) = x_n + ... + x_0$. – caduk Nov 04 '24 at 18:51
  • 1
    @caduk ok I’ll admit I’m confused. You seem to be using $x_n=f(n)-f(n-1)$ (in which case I agree that everything just boils down to partial sums), but what I meant is $x_n=f(x_n)-f(x_{n-1})$. For example, in the linked question, $f(x)=\frac{x}{x+1}$ and it is not true that $f(0)=x_0$, $x_1=f(1)-f(0)$. –  Nov 04 '24 at 19:01
  • Yeah, sorry, I read your question too quickly – caduk Nov 04 '24 at 19:03
  • Renaming objects, this is an instance of what is called a cohomological equation in dynamics. Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3187711/169085 – Alp Uzman Dec 15 '24 at 20:43
  • Roughly: renaming gives that one wants to solve $\Phi=\Psi\circ f-\Psi$ for $\Psi$ given the other two. There are different paradigms that allow one to do this, or characterize the $\Phi$ for which there is a $\Psi$. One instance in the hyperbolic paradigm (which roughly corresponds to the case where you cannot compute $x_n$ due to exponential decay of information), for any $\Phi$ sufficiently smooth that vanishes on periodic orbits the equation can be solved (Livsic Theorem). – Alp Uzman Dec 15 '24 at 20:47
  • Expounding on the previous comments, the function $f$ will equal: $$f(x_j)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{-1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sum_{i=1}^{k} x_{j+i} .$$ This limit is also used here: https://www.jstor.org/stable/24714177 . – The Other Terry Dec 18 '24 at 19:14

2 Answers2

1

By searching $f$ such that $x_n = f(x_n)-f(x_{n+1})$ (as in your linked answer), we have: $$x = f(x) - f(\varphi(x))$$ If we assume that $f$ is bijective: $$\varphi(x) = f^{-1}(f(x)-x)$$

We can build some classes of functions $\varphi$ by fixing classes of function $f$.

For example, suppose $f$ is of the form $\frac{1}{ax+b}$ (We can choose $f$ up to a constant, so no need for a polynomial term for the numerator)

We have: $$f^{-1}(x) = \frac{1-bx}{ax}$$ And: $$f(x)-x = \frac{1-bx-ax^2}{ax+b}$$ So $\varphi$ needs to be of the form: $$\begin{split}\varphi(x) &= f^{-1}(f(x)-x)\\ &= \frac{1-b\frac{1-bx-ax^2}{ax+b}}{a\frac{1-bx-ax^2}{ax+b}}\\ &= \frac{ax+b-b+b^2x-abx^2}{a-abx-a^2x^2}\\ &= \frac{(a+b^2)x+abx^2}{a-abx-a^2x^2} \end{split}$$

This is a bit cryptic for a class of function, with some variable changes, we can rewrite it as two separate cases.

If $b = 0$, it becomes $\varphi = \frac{x}{1-ax^2}$ with $f(x)= \frac{1}{ax}$

If $b \neq 0$, let $\varphi = \frac{\frac{AB+1}{B}x+x^2}{A-x-Bx^2}$

We have $a=\frac{B}{A}$ and $b = \frac{1}{A}$, so $f(x) = \frac{A}{Bx+1}$

In your linked answer, $\varphi(x)=\frac{-x^2}{1+x+x^2}=\frac{x^2}{-1-x-x^2}$ so $A=-1, B=1$ and $f(x) = \frac{-1}{x+1}$, which is a constant away from your suggested $f(x) = \frac{x}{x+1}$

caduk
  • 5,621
  • 1
  • 5
  • 23
  • This works but it relies heavily on the ansatz $f(x)=\frac{1}{ax+b}$, doesn’t it? So, given $\varphi$, you just need to make a good guess on the form of $f$ and if your guess is good enough, you’ll be able to choose constants so that you obtain back your exact $\varphi$. –  Nov 06 '24 at 07:38
  • @abomasnow Yes, but I doubt there are general rules for this. This is a bit like for finding antiderivatives, we derive a class of function and try to deduce how we can get back. Maybe we can extract some useful transformation, like integration by part, or even a powerful algorithm, like Risch algorithm https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risch_algorithm, I don't know. – caduk Nov 06 '24 at 08:09
0

As was previously mentioned, I wouldn't expect a closed form solution in the most general case. This is true in the case where we are solving the cohomological equation or more specifically the coboundary equation $g=f - f\circ \varphi$ for a dynamical system $\varphi$. For general dynamical systems, it is possible to obtain a representation of the transfer function $f$ as a limit. It's not unique, since a constant can be added, $f+c$, and it will still satisfy the coboundary equation. This limit also converges to an $f$ in the situation here. If $f(x_j)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \sum_{i=0}^{k-1} x_{j+i}$, then $$f(x_j)-f(x_{j+1})=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n} \Big( \sum_{i=0}^{k-1} x_{j+i} - \sum_{i=0}^{k-1} x_{j+1+i}\Big)=\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} (x_j - x_{j+k})$$ $$=x_j - \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} x_{j+k}=x_j,\ \mbox{since}\ \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} x_{j+k}<\infty .$$ The formula in the comments should not have a negative (unless the coboundary equation is written as $g=f\circ \varphi - f$). This is NOT an answer to the question and I'm not expecting upvotes. Just wanted to provide more details. As @[Alp Uzman] pointed out, there are certain cases where this can be solved for dynamical systems. This paper shows when the coboundary equation can be solved for general measure preserving systems: https://tinyurl.com/4zxfmvtn .