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I am reading materials on PageRank seen here: https://arxiv.org/pdf/2207.02296, and here: https://www.stat.uchicago.edu/~lekheng/meetings/mathofranking/ref/langville.pdf. Given the walk matrix $\mathbf{M}$ depicting a Markov chain, some $0 < \alpha < 1$, and $n\times1$ probability vector $\mathbf{p}$, we can write the stationary distribution with: \begin{align*} \mathbf{p}^T = \mathbf{p} \biggl(\alpha\mathbf{M} + (1-\alpha)\frac{\mathbf{e}\mathbf{e}^T}{n}\biggr). \end{align*} where $\mathbf{e}$ is the all ones vector. We know the second eigenvalue $\lambda_2$ of this weighted sum walk matrix $\alpha\mathbf{M} + (1-\alpha)\frac{\mathbf{e}\mathbf{e}^T}{n}$ is the mixing time.

Now I want to determine the change in $\lambda_2$ as a function of change in $\alpha$. That is to say given perturbed $\alpha$: $0 < \alpha + \Delta \alpha <1$, then what is the $\lambda_2$ of this system: \begin{align*} \mathbf{p}^T = \mathbf{p} \biggl((\alpha + \Delta \alpha) \mathbf{M} + (1-\alpha - \Delta \alpha)\frac{\mathbf{e}\mathbf{e}^T}{n}\biggr). \end{align*}

I saw a similar post here: Given a perturbation of a symmetric matrix, find an expansion for the eigenvalues, but it's unclear if it answers my question.

chibro2
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    the inverse spectral gap / relaxation time is not the same as the mixing time – LPZ Oct 20 '24 at 21:00
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    Hello friend! I recently asked a question about a similar topic over here - maybe tis can give you some ideas? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4984731/why-is-the-second-eigenvalue-so-important – farrow90 Oct 21 '24 at 01:43
  • @LPZ could you expand on your comment? I meant to say how does the mixing time under (1-$\alpha$) compare to that of $(1-\alpha-\Delta\alpha)$. – chibro2 Oct 22 '24 at 14:41

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A general method is to perturbatively expand the characteristic polynomial: $$ \chi(\lambda) = \det(\lambda I-T) \\ T = \pi+\alpha(M-\pi) \quad \pi = \frac{ee^T}n $$ Using the differential of the determinant: $$ \det(A+dB) = \det(A)+\text{Tr}(C^TdB)+o(dB) $$ with $C$ the cofactor matrix of $A$, you get: $$ d\chi = \text{Tr}(C^T(M-\pi))d\alpha $$ with $C(\lambda)$ the cofactor matrix of $\lambda I-T$. Thus, if your eigenvalue is not degenerate, i.e. $\chi'(\lambda)\neq 0$, the first order perturbation is given by: $$ d\lambda = -\frac{\text{Tr}(C^T(M-\pi))}{\chi'(\lambda)}d\alpha +o(d\alpha) = -\frac{\text{Tr}(C^TM)-\frac{e^TCe}n}{\text{Tr}(C)}d\alpha +o(d\alpha) $$ This holds in particular for the second eigenvalue $\lambda_2$. Numerically, this formula is not efficient as it requires computing the cofactor matrix.

You can generalise the previous result if your second eigenvalue is degenerate. The perturbation will generically lift the degeneracy. Quantitatively, if it is a root of order $p$ so that $\chi^{(p)}(\lambda)\neq0$, you have $p$ roots: $$ d\lambda = \left(-\frac{\text{Tr}(C^T(M-\pi))}{\chi^{(p)}(\lambda)}d\alpha\right)^{1/p}+o(d\alpha^{1/p}) $$ and are all multiple of each other of a $p$-th root of unity.

On a terminology note, $t_r=\frac1{\ln\lambda_2}$ is the relaxation time. This is different from the mixing time: $$ t_m(\varepsilon) = \min \left\{ t \geq 0 : \max_{1\leq i\leq n}\frac12\sum_{j=1}^n|(T^n)_{ij} - p_j| \leq \varepsilon \right\} $$ with $p$ the stationary distribution: $$ pT = p $$ Not only do the definitions differ, but they can have very different scalings. In a lot of applications, you have a cutoff phenomenon where $t_r\ll t_m$. Intuitively, $t_m$ is the time to reach the stationary state from a deterministic initial condition, while $t_r$ is the decorrelation time once you already are in the stationary state

LPZ
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  • thank you for this response. Is there some book/chapter or lecture I can read to get more background on the concepts you used here. – chibro2 Oct 23 '24 at 23:07
  • and @LPZ what is $O(d\alpha)$, is that big-O notation? But $d\alpha$ is a constant right? what is the meaning of big O of a constant. – chibro2 Oct 24 '24 at 12:15
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    No it is always a little o $o(d\alpha)$. Perturbation theory is a way of getting an asymptotic expansion in the limit $d\alpha\to0$. You will not get particular simplifications for finite $d\alpha$, that is the whole point of perturbation theory. This is just to say that if the term is not exceptionally zero, it will be the leading order term of the expansion. For more on the distinction between mixing and relaxation, I've added some details in my answer to farrow90's linked question – LPZ Oct 24 '24 at 13:37