Let $( X_1, X_2, \dots )$ be independent and identically distributed random variables. Denote $(\mu = \mathbb{E}[X_i])$ and $(\bar{X}_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i)$.
Assume that $( \mu = 0)$ and $( \text{var}(X_i) = 1)$. Determine to what and in what sense the following random variables converge: $( n^{3/2} (\bar{X}_n)^2)$.
I tried this: From CLT we have that $( n^{1/2} \bar{X}_n)$ converge in distribution to a random variable with distribution N(0,1). Now I used delta-method for function g(x)=n$x^2$ which derivation 2nx is continuous on R and got that $( n^{3/2} (\bar{X}_n)^2)$ converges in distribution to a random variable with distribution N(0,0) so we get that $( n^{3/2} (\bar{X}_n)^2)$ converges in distribution to a random variable that is constant 0 almost surely.
Is this solution correct (if it is, is there another way how to do it?) or if it is not correct, how could this be solved? Can I use in delta-method a function that depends on n at all? And what would happen if, after substituting $\mu$, the function equaled something that contained n? Then we would send n to infinity, but the expression on the right-hand side would depend on n...