In order to find the length of the curve $r=\theta,\ \theta\in[0, 2\pi]$, the integral that must be solved is $$\int_0^{2\pi}\sqrt{\theta^2+1}\ d\theta$$ For which my proffesor opted to use the following change of variable: $u=\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2+1}$, since $$\theta=\frac{u^2-1}{2u}$$ and $$d\theta=\frac{u^2+1}{2u^2}du$$ And from there he wrote directly the solution $$L=\frac{1}{2}[\theta\sqrt{\theta^2+1}+log|\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2+1}|]^{2\pi}_0$$However, I do not undersand why is this the change of variable he decided to use.
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1Neither do I. However, if you include the full text of the teacher's solution, it makes it easier to respond to your problem. – user2661923 May 10 '24 at 17:58
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1You can thank Euler – user170231 May 16 '24 at 21:46
5 Answers
There is an intermediate substitution you can make use of: $\theta = \sinh t$, which gives
$$I = \int_0^{\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)}\cosh^2t\:dt$$
From here, you can either use the $\cosh t$ double angle identity to solve the integral
$$I = \int_0^{\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)}\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\cosh2t\:dt = \frac{t}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\sinh2t\Biggr|_0^{\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)}$$
$$ = \frac{1}{2}\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)+\frac{1}{2}\sinh\left(\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)\right)\cosh\left(\sinh^{-1}(2\pi)\right) = \boxed{\frac{1}{2}\sinh^{-1}(2\pi) + \pi\sqrt{4\pi^2+1}}$$
or you can rewrite the integral in terms $u = e^t = \sinh t + \cosh t = \theta + \sqrt{\theta^2+1}$ to get
$$I = \int_1^{2\pi+\sqrt{4\pi^2+1}}\left(\frac{u+u^{-1}}{2}\right)^2\frac{du}{u} = \frac{1}{4}\int_1^{2\pi+\sqrt{4\pi^2+1}}u+\frac{2}{u}+\frac{1}{u^3}\:du$$
and you can solve that integral to get the equivalent, but in my opinion less elegant, form of the answer.
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Ninad Munshi’s answer is good - but I’m not sure it gets at the question “why use this particular change of variables?”
It is possible to solve the integral via the given substitution, after a fair bit of lengthy algebra, that turns out to be “nice” due to a few lucky coincidences. I’ll give an outline of how this may be done.
Say $$I = \int_0^{2 \pi} \sqrt{\theta^2+1} d \theta.$$
If we write $u=\theta + \sqrt{\theta^2+1}$, then
$$\frac{du}{d \theta} = 1 + \frac{\theta}{\sqrt{\theta^2+1}},$$
So $\sqrt{\theta^2+1} \frac{du}{d \theta} = \theta + \sqrt{\theta^2+1}= u$, i.e. $(u-\theta) du= u d \theta$. Note here that our ability to write $\frac{du}{d \theta}$ in terms of $u$ here in a “nice” way is somewhat lucky and may not happen in general.
We can substitute this into the integral to get
$$I = \int_{\alpha}^{\beta} (u-\theta)^2 u d u,$$
For some $\alpha$, $\beta$, whatever the appropriate new limits of the integral are under this change of variables.
Now, we can rewrite $\theta$ in terms of $u$. $(u - \theta)^2 = \theta^2+1$, so $u^2 - 2 u \theta - 1 = 0$, so $\theta = \frac{1 - u^2}{2u}$.
Substituting this into the integral, we get
$$I = \int_{\alpha}^{\beta} \left(u-\frac{1-u^2}{2u}\right)^2 u du$$
Expanding this out, we’ll get a rational function, that is, a ratio of two polynomials, for which there are algorithms that can be used to calculate the antiderivative (presumably how your teacher came up with the $L$ given in your question.)
Compare this instead to a substitution using $\theta = \sinh t$ and the use of trigonometric identities - much nicer.
Also, try solving, say
$$\int_0^{2 \pi} \sqrt{\theta^2 + \theta + 1} d\theta,$$
using $u = \theta + \sqrt{\theta^2 + \theta + 1}$, or something similar like that. What goes wrong? You’ll see that the given substitution working in the original integral is more a result of luck.
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1The argument here is that the why is because of the hyperbolic functions and their identities. The intermediary substitution is much more fundamental to the geometry of the situation than you give it credit for. In the example you quote, more than likely the magic substitution in that case would be $$u = \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\left(\theta+\frac{1}{2}\right)+\sqrt{\theta^2+\theta+1}$$ which I derived from the intermediary hyperbolic substitution. At the end of the day you're right that sticking with hyperbolic function is much nicer. – Ninad Munshi May 10 '24 at 18:43
This is another approach. (maybe a bit more complicated or "advanced") But at least in my mind , doing it this way makes a lot more sense and every step is more straight-forward.
Let $θ=\ \tan(u)$ and $dθ=\sec^2(u)$ then $\sqrt{θ^2+1} = \sqrt{\tan^2(u)+1}=\sqrt{\ sec^2(u)}$
This substitution is invertible over $0<u<\tan^{-1}(2π) $ with inverse $u=\tan^{-1}(θ)$.
This gives a new lower bound $u_1=\tan^{-1} (0)=0$ and upper bound $u_2=\tan^{-1}(2π)$
$$I=\int_0^{\tan^{-1}(2π)}\sec^2(u)^{3/2}du = \int_0^{\tan^{-1}(2π)}\sec^3(u)du$$
Then we can use the formula $\int \sec^m(u)du=\frac{\sin(u) \sec^{m-1}(u) }{m-1}+\frac{m-2}{m-1}\int \sec^{-2+m}(u)du$, where $m=3$
$$I=\frac{1}{2}\tan(u)\sec(u)|^ {\tan^{-1}(2π)}_0 + \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{\tan^{-1}(2π)}\sec(u)du$$
Evaluating the antiderivative at the limits and subtracting we get
$$I=π \sqrt{1+4π^2}+ \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\tan^{-1}(2π)}\sec(u)du$$
Multiplying and dividing by $\sec(u)+\tan(u)$
$$I=π \sqrt{1+4π^2}+ \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{\tan^{-1}(2π)}\frac{\sec^2(u)+\sec(u)\tan(u)} {\sec(u)+\tan(u)}du$$
Then substituting $s=\tan(u)+\sec(u)$ and $ds=(\sec^2(u)+\ tan(u)\sec(u))du$ this gives a lower bound $s_1=\tan(0)+\sec(0)=1$ and upper bound $s_2=\tan(\tan^{-1}(2π))+\sec(\tan^{-1}(2π))=\sqrt{1+4π^2}+2π$
$$I=π\sqrt{1+4π^2}+\frac{1}{2}\int_1^{\sqrt{1+4π^2}+2π}\frac{1}{s}ds=π\sqrt{1+4π^2}+\frac{\log(s)}{2}|^{{\sqrt{1+4π^2}+2π}}_1$$
$$=π\sqrt{1+4π^2}+\frac{1}{2}\log(2π+\sqrt{1+4π^2})$$
Which is equal to :
$$=π\sqrt{1+4π^2}+\frac{1}{2}\sinh^{-1}(2π)$$
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We first use integration by parts. $$ \begin{aligned} J & =\int \sqrt{\theta^2+1} d \theta \\ & =\theta \sqrt{\theta^2+1}-\int \frac{\theta^2}{\sqrt{\theta^2+1}} d \theta \\ & =\theta \sqrt{\theta^2+1}-\int\left(\sqrt{\theta^2+1}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\theta^2+1}}\right) d \theta \end{aligned} $$ Rearranging gives $$ J=\frac{1}{2}\left(\theta \sqrt{\theta^2+1}+\int \frac{d \theta}{\sqrt{\theta^2+1}}\right) $$ For the last integral, let $\theta=\sinh x$, we have $$ \begin{aligned} \int_0^{2 \pi} \frac{d \theta}{\sqrt{\theta^2+1}} & =\int_0^{\sinh ^{-1}(2 \pi)} \frac{\cosh x}{\sqrt{\sinh ^2 x+1}} d x \\ & =\int_0^{\sinh ^{-1}(2 \pi)} 1 d x \\ & =\sinh ^{-1}(2 \pi) \end{aligned} $$ Conclusively, we have $$ \begin{aligned} \int_0^{2 \pi} \sqrt{\theta^2+1} d \theta & =\frac{1}{2}\left[\theta\sqrt{\theta^2+1}\right]_0^{2 \pi}+\sinh ^{-1}(2 \pi) \\ & =\pi \sqrt{4 \pi^2+1}+\frac{1}{2} \sinh ^{-1}(2 \pi) \end{aligned} $$ Wish it helps!
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When the expression $\sqrt{\theta^2+1}$ shows up it is very tempting to substiute $\theta: =\sinh u.$ In this way $$e^u=\sinh u+\cosh u=\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2 +1}$$ $u=\log(\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2+1})$ and $du={1\over \sqrt{\theta^2+1}}.$ Therefore the substitions $u= \log(\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2+1})$ or $v=\theta+\sqrt{\theta^2+1}$ are pretty common.
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