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I used the residue theorem to solve the inverse Laplace transform of:

$$f(t)=\mathcal L^{-1}\Bigg( {s e^{zs} \over (k-s)^2(k+s)^2}\Bigg) \tag 1$$

where $k$ and $z$ are non-negative. I have two poles of order two at $k$ and $-k$. I calculated the first residual as:

$$R(k)={d \over ds}{se^{(z+t)s}\over(k+s)^2}\Bigg |_{s=k} = {e^{(t+z)s}\over(k+s)^3}\Big( (t+z)(ks+s^2)+k-s \Big) \Bigg |_{s=k}={(t+z)e^{k(t+z)} \over 4k}\tag 2$$

Similarly, I calculated the other residual as follows:

$$R(-k)={d \over ds}{se^{(z+t)s}\over(k-s)^2}\Bigg |_{s=-k} = {-e^{(t+z)s}\over(k-s)^3}\Big( (t+z)(s^2-ks)-k-s \Big) \Bigg |_{s=-k}=-{(t+z)e^{-k(t+z)} \over 4k}\tag 3$$

After adding them up I computed:

$$f(t) = R(k) + R(-k)={ (t+z)\big(e^{k(t+z)} - e^{-k(t+z)} \big) \over 4k} \tag 4$$

Wolfram seems to get my result multiplied with the Heaviside function:

$$f_{w}(t) =H(t+z){ (t+z)\big(e^{k(t+z)} - e^{-k(t+z)} \big) \over 4k} \tag 5$$

So my question is, where did the Heaviside function come from, and is my computation incorrect?

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    You integrate $\displaystyle \frac1{2\pi i}\int_{a-i\infty}^{a+i\infty}{s e^{(z+t)s} \over (k-s)^2(k+s)^2}ds$, leaving all poles on the left side. For $z>-t,$ you close the contour on the left side, catching all the poles; for $z<-t,$ you close the contour on the right side, where you do not have poles and, therefore, the integral is zero. – Svyatoslav Nov 19 '23 at 22:38
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    I see. Thank you! Feel free to write this as an answer, so I can accept it. – FriendlyNeighborhoodEngineer Nov 20 '23 at 09:02

0 Answers0